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is this true?? my teacher said so? f^-1(f^-1(x))=f(x) ??? so far it looks like it isn't?? but i'm not sure if i heard my teacher right?
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I think you misheard. It should be \[\Large f^{-1}(f(x)) = x\] or \[\Large f(f^{-1}(x)) = x\] if f(x) has an inverse
yep
...if f has an inverse
oh, yep to jim
i heard our teacher mention the statements that you mentioned up there, jim. for some reason, i also had this statement written down in my notes. but oh well, i'll just ask her again. thank you!
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