On 1st Jan 2000, a man borrowed Rs. A at a fixed compound interest rate of a%. He pays back Rs. P on 1st Jan 2001, and then again Rs. P on 1st Jan 2002. Let a/100 = r Show that the amount still owing in Rs., just after this second payment, is A(1+r)^2 - P(1+r) - P.
i am trying, after 1yr : in 2001 he needs to give A(1+r) pays back P so, A(1+r) -P now , you multiply [ A(1+r) -P] with 1+r for 2002 to get A(1+r)^2 -P(1+r) and again he pays back P, so final amount = A(1+r)^2 -P(1+r) -P phew...
omg
ok wait sub questions coming up bUT THANK YOU
assuming tha the loan is completely paid back after N years, show that \[P = (Ar)/[1 - (1+r)^-N]\]
ohh wait, i just substitute the sum formula, right?? for GP's??
i guess yes, will have to try
okie.
ok, forget that other question (unless you have the answer, of course :P ) and just see this. Using the same P = blah bah walla formula, we, need to express N in terms of A, P, and r.
means here ? \[P = (Ar)/[1 - (1+r)^{-N}]\] do u need to isolate N here ?
yup.
let me try (1-Ar)/P = (1+r)^(-N)
logarithms use karna padega
arrey no yaar. no other method??
and btw no, it would be 1 - (Ar/P) = (1+r)^(-N)
ha wohi :P
without lod, N isolate nai ho sakta.
*log
well, ok.
what u typing so much :P
i think you can prove this by mathematical induction P=(Ar)/[1−(1+r)^(−N)] did u try it ?
ummm......nope :P sorry, had gone for dinner.
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