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For what values of p do the integral converge or diverge?
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\[\int\limits_{2}^{\infty}\frac{ dx }{ x(lnx)^p }\]
\[\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty }\frac{ 1 }{ (1-p)(lnx)^{p-1} } \] We see from this that p has to be greater than 1, that way as you approach infinity the limit goes to 0. p can't equal 1, and I suggest you try several special cases to show to yourself why not. Solve the following easy integrals to get a feel for why. p=0, p=1, p=-1, p=2, p=1/2
it should me \[\frac{ lnx^{1-p} }{ 1-p }\]
p>1
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