two particles execute shm with the same time period=6 sec, same amplitude=5cm, have the same mean position. second particle starts after 1 second the first one starts. find the maximum separation bw the two?
@Mashy
omg that is so easy :D
do the simulation in powerpoint.. you ll come to know :D..
hello!??!? what is THE MAX seperation they can have???
lol. we dont have the luxury of powerpoint in exams.
can the time difference be translated into phase difference?
what do you is THE MAX seperation they can have??? think and tell?!.. the max possible??
is it infinity!?? is it like they can have infinite seperation possible??
its shm. so not infinity obv. i cant even think of a start.
forget about start... just draw a case.. where the two particles have max separation!
how can you just draw a case where two particles have max seperation? you have to have an equation and then find a max right? am i missing out anything?
why can't you think what would be the positions of the two particles having same mean.. and 5cm amplitude.. such that there is max separation.. forget about the initial phase and stuff.. just draw the positions.. such that they have THE MAX separation.. just try answering this question first!
hmm. will it be the position after 1 second when the second particle has to just start?
JUST DRAW the position.. that you think give max serparation!! :O.. draw QUICK!!!
|dw:1361773999843:dw| there thats the answer!!.. you cannot have separation more than that!
i think you didnt get the question. or i just missed writing something. question says they move in the same direction.
wait.. !! i guess too :D
yea you can translate the time difference into phase difference!
how?
consider the initial phase difference to be phi.. then find out what is the additional phase difference they would generate after 1 second.. after that the phase difference remains the same!! 6 seconds corresponds to a phase difference of 2 pi rads 1 second corresponds to there fore 2 pi / 6 rads!
cool. so i write y1=asin(omega t) for the the first particle. y2=asin(wt + pie/3) for the second particle. do y=y1-y2. what next? i thought of differentiating. but differentiate wrt what?
ermm.. wait.. if you do that.. you are assuming at time t=0 they are at same position!.. differentiate with respect to t maybe? :P.. the y is a variable of t only right? then its the t that we need to differentiate.. we ll find the t for max value.. then all you gotta do is substitute that value of t in the equation!
i see. i'll solve it and get back to you.
oki doki!!
got it. thank you! :)
really!?? can you post your work?? cause i didn't get it :D
yea. y1=5sin(theta) y2=5sin(theta + pi/3) where theta=wt y=y2-y1 i get (1/2)sin(theta) + (sqrt3)/2 cos(theta) differentiate wrt to t and putting equal to 0 i get tan(pie/3 t)=sqrt3 --> t=1 sec put this into y and get y=5cm. thats the answer.
wait.. i didn't get how y = 1/2 sin(theta) + sqr..... i did the differentiation directly!
\[y = Asin(wt) - Asin(wt- \pi/3)\] differentiating \[y' = wAcos(wt) - wAcos(wt- \pi/3) = 0\] and that gives nothing :P
it will. you need to solve cos(wt - pie/3).
wait continuing \[wAcos(wt) = wAcos(wt- \pi/3) \] \[\cos(wt) = \cos(wt-\pi/3)\] hence \[2n \pi + wt = wt - \pi/3\] thats what i did.. :D
haha. i dont complicate things. i solved your equation and got the answer. :P
i think ther is a reason m a teacher :D..
haha. i know. teachers like to complicate things.
no .. i meant.. i only solve upto a point.. where the students can reach the final solution :D
oh alright. i get it now. :P
@Mashy is there a way to solve this question using reference circle?
hmm.. should be able to!!..
but it would ultimately be the same thing :P.. you take the projections and stuff!
reference circle method normally is easier and shorter. but i am not able to do it here.
even if you take a reference circle.. you ll have to find the projection of the particle on the diameter.. true? .. so it ultimately would end up wit the same thing :-/
not true. i'll post an image here. just a min.
ok !
not good quality. enough to understand. but i dont get whats done here.
hmm lets see..
they have converted the time into phase difference.. here .. it would be the difference in angle!!.. so it turns out to be pi/3 rads.. as we had discussed.. however.. they have directly assumed what would be the case where they would have the max separation
|dw:1361818225765:dw| this could be one case.. but you see. this does not give max seperation.. m taking projection over the x axis!
but the case they have taken it this on
|dw:1361818381655:dw|
so basically they shouldnt have taken this directly, right? and also if particles move in the same direction initially, the figure they have drawn is wrong?
no... its right.. !!
|dw:1361818653895:dw|
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