COMPLEX VARIABLES: how do you show that the function is nowhere analytic? solution is on first page of the attached pdf number 2
what does it mean to be ANALYTIC????
A function is analytic if it obeys the Cauchy-Riemann equations.
so we just prove that the Cauchy riemann equation does not fit in the equation?
in the solution how do they come up with the equation where it is differentiable??
It is differentiable where the CR equations are satisfied. That is, if \[f = u(x,y) + i\cdot v(x,y) \] where u and v are real, differentiable functions, \[ \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial v}{\partial y} \] and \[ \frac{\partial u}{ \partial y} = -\frac{\partial v}{\partial x} \]
In your case, \[ f = xy + i\cdot y\] so u = xy and v = y. The first equation says \[ y = 1 \] and the second says \[x = 0 \] The only possible place where this function is differentiable is therefore when x= 0 and y = 1 .... that is, the point z= i . A function cannot be analytic at a single point, so it's nowhere analytic.
how do you know to set y = 1?
That's the first CR equation.
oh i get it now, thanks!!!
Just to clarify, for a function to be analytic it must satisfy the CR equations over some open domain -- meaning that if the equations are satisfied only at a point, but not in the immediate neighborhood of that point, the function is not analytic.
ok thanks!
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