g
\[P(A) ~ \left\{ 0,1 \right\}^A\]
There's ~ between the two
In this case \( \{0,1\}^A \) means take the Cartesian product \(|A|\) times?
that is actually the next part of this question
How would you show the equivalence of a function to a set?
One is a set of functions, the other is a set of sets.
It's got to do with this idea if A ~ B then it means there exists a bijection from A to B. Or there's exists injections from A to B and B to A.
Well if the functions map from elements of the set to 0 or 1, you could interpret 0 as the element not being in a subset and 1 as being in the subset.
So each function could represent a subset.
I had that idea in my mind, but couldn't formalize it into a proof
Just do induction on \(|A|\).
Or do you have to prove it for the infinite case?
well yeah both for finite and infinite A
Let \(S_i\subseteq \mathcal{P}(A) \). We map \(S_i \) to \(f_i\) when the following is true: \( S_i = \{x\in A | f_i(x)=1\}\)
Also \(f_i \in \{0,1\}^A\)
Then you could try to show a mapping from \(i\) to a subset/function
Hmmm, actually you might try a proof by contradiction.
interesting
It seems you'd need axiom of choice to do this for the infinite case.
Let \(S_i \in \mathcal{P}(A)\) (clearly \(S_i\subseteq A\)) Let \(f_j \in \{0,1\}^A\) (where \(f_j:A\to \{0,1\} \)) Let \(G: \{0,1\}^A\to \mathcal{P}(A)\) We can define the \(G\) as follows: \(G(f_j) = \{x\in A|f_j(x)=1\}\) \(G\) is a function which takes a function and returns a set. Let \( H: \mathcal{P}(A) \to \{0,1\}^A\) We can define \(H\subseteq A\times \{0,1\}\) as follows: \(H(S_i) = \{(x,0)|x\notin S_i\} \cup\{(x,1) |x\in S_i\} \) \(H\) is a function that takes a set and returns a function.
At this point it just becomes a matter of rigor. We've show a mapping from subsets to functions, and we've shown a mapping from functions to subsets.
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