One key difference between Bentham’s and Mill’s respective versions of utilitarianism is that … a) … Bentham draws a distinction between higher and lower pleasures while Mill does not. b) … Mill believes that the principle of utility applies both to the actions of individuals and government policies while Bentham believes that it applies only to the actions of individuals. c) … Bentham believes that the principle of utility applies both to the actions of individuals and government policies while Mill believes that it applies only to the actions of individuals.
d) … Mill draws a distinction between higher and lower pleasures while Bentham does not. e) … Bentham but not Mill believes that morality requires the maximization of aggregate happiness.
I would say B.
thanks so much
it might be D though
In the same way, Mill made qualitative distinctions in different pleasures. According to Bentham, all pleasures are similar. If the quantity of pleasure be the same, then there is no difference between poetry and pushpin. Contrary to this, according to Mill, 'It is better to be a human being dissatisfied than a pig satisfied, better to be a Socrates dissatisfied than a fool satisfied. In this way Mill clearly states that sensous pleasure originating from animal tendencies is not everything. Mendal or intellectual pleasure is far superior.
D is the safest answer I think.
I appreciate ur help. Ty
yw
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