Alternating Series Test help
Recall that the Alternating Series Test has three conditions associated with it: 1. The series must alternate. 2. The terms must decrease (in absolute value) for large n. 3. The nth term must go to 0. Can you even have a series where the first two conditions hold and the third doesn't? Create a convergent series that satisfies conditions 1 and 3, but not 2. Create a divergent series that satisfies conditions 1 and 3, but not 2
This is interesting... you'll have my answer by your return, @Best_Mathematician :D
For a series that alternates and decreases, but does not go to 0, just find a series that decreases but not to 0 e.g. \(\frac{n+1}n\). Throw in a factor of \((-1)^n\) to make it alternating:$$a_n=(-1)^n\frac{n+1}n$$
@terenzreignz can you solve it
what about last two questions
ok I lied so (n+1)/n is not decreasing. it simplifies to just over one for every n. ok so lets look at a divergent series like sin(x) since the question does not specify an infinite series let us say that n approaches pi/2
does this satisfy converging to zero when n=pi/2
i guess
but it both alternates and decreases if you add (-1)^n right?
ya
and best... what is the sin (pi/2)???
1
crap I messed up disregard everything I just posted please
ok lol
its increasing on an absolute value hmm do from n=1 to n=-pi/2 then it works
but can you have a negative bound on a series... of that I am not certain
\[a_n=\left\{\begin{matrix}\frac{1}{n^2} & n\text{ even} \\ -\frac{1}{n^3} & n\text{ odd}\end{matrix}\right.\]
and \[a_n=\left\{\begin{matrix}\frac{1}{n} & n\text{ even} \\ -\frac{1}{n^2} & n\text{ odd}\end{matrix}\right.\]
i think you posted same thing twice
my bad...nm
both are convergent series right
no
why dont they approach to zero
both sequences go to zero as n goes to infinity...but the 1st series converges and the second diverges
ohk
so the first is answer of second question and second is answer of third?
yes
arent they all decresing too @Zarkon
no
how
plug in some values for n...that should convince you
not really the larger n gets the smaller a p series hence a decreasing dunction
for \[a_n=\left\{\begin{matrix}\frac{1}{n} & n\text{ even} \\ -\frac{1}{n^2} & n\text{ odd}\end{matrix}\right.\] \[|a_1|=1\] \[|a_2|=1/2\] \[|a_3|=1/9\] \[|a_4|=1/4\] \[|a_5|=1/25\] \[|a_6|=1/6\] \[|a_7|=1/49\] \[|a_8|=1/8\] doesn't look like it is a decreasing sequence to me
I may be putting my foot in my mouth with this- but that is not a single alternating series. It defines even and odd partial sums. Please educate me if I am wrong(not sarcasm), but that would not work for this particular question because I do not thik that qualifies as a series.(I can definitely be wrong and probably am, can you direct me to some literature on the subject if this is the case)
"...not a single alternating series." if it is not a 'single AS' then what is the other part? it looks to me that for each \(n\in\mathbb{N}\) you get one value \(a_n\)
but it is two different series for even and odd values, I'm not sure if that is allowed with series like functions
\[a_n=\frac{1}{2n}-\frac{1}{2n^2}+(-1)^n\left[\frac{1}{2n}+\frac{1}{2n^2}\right]\] how about that
\[a_n=\frac{1}{2n}-\frac{1}{2n^2}+(-1)^n\left[\frac{1}{2n}+\frac{1}{2n^2}\right]\] if \(n\) is even then \[a_n=\frac{1}{n}\] if \(n\) is odd then \[a_n=-\frac{1}{n^2}\]
looks like one thing to me
@FibonacciChick666 #1 (n+1)/n = 1 + 1/n is definitely decreasing as n -> infty... besides, convergence makes no sense when dealing with finite series.
ahhh, that makes more sense ok. but I still disagree with the allowance of even and odd in the definition. i would simplify this to \[\frac{(1+(-1)^n)}{2n}+\frac{((-1)^n-1)}{2n^2}\] which for n=1 is -1/n^2
@oldrin.bataku yea I retracted, I realized that my adding sucks
ok @Zarkon I disagree with your original notation but now understand your meaning.
when you put \((-1)^n\) in the definition of a sequence you are essentially defining it for odds and evens.
@Zarkon right but a piecewise definition like that is not closed-form, which might be a problem.
um...yes it is
but prior to writing it out in terms it was not accurate for this answer I don't think
I know very well what a closed-form expression is, @Zarkon, but that article does not agree with you. Additionally, a quick Google search yields: http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1002/cta.376/abstract
then you can't read
but what you wrote was not a series that satisfied the original question the first time, the expansion where you can see the terms go to zero yeilding that simplified expression is better for a this question. it's like not showing all of your work and just writing an answer in the end it is incorrect and no credit
though that expression is what the series simplifies to, it is not the series
what i wrote works...and is a solution to this problem
Still nothing agrees with what you're saying. A piecewise-defined function is not presented using a single closed-form analytic expression. Just because it may be broken into pieces which are indeed closed-form analytic expressions doesn't mean the whole is. I'm not arguing that what you wrote is wrong, but I believe @FibonacciChick666 is entirely correct in pointing out OP is more than likely expected to present the solution using a single closed-form analytic expression.
Thank you @oldrin.bataku you explained that much more effectively
ok guys dont take it so high. this is just high school level calculus which i need help with
I don't know why you responded so aggressively.
Does it say you cant write it as a piece wise function in the directions...it jusrt said give an example...and I did
Nobody is doubting that you gave a working solution. The thing is, since this is high-school calculus, OP is more than likely going to want a single closed-from analytic expression. Again, you did indeed give a working solution, but @FibonacciChick666 presented it in a form that @Best_Mathematician is more likely to be able to use.
where is "FibonacciChick666 "'s solution ?
ya...i really can't find it....there are lot of comments and stuff
the expanded and simplified version of your piece-wise series is what he was referring to
I don't recall ever calling it @FibonacciChick666's solution, it's your's @Zarkon... it was just rewritten using \((-1)^n\) tricks to condense it into a single expression.
I'm refering to this... "...but @FibonacciChick666 presented it in a form that @Best_Mathematician is more likely to be able to use."
please help me out guys....no time for this stuff
Yes, exactly -- he presented your solution in a different more likely usable way.
she is a girl
so do i got answers?
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