Can someone verify thisis true? Definition of Sine inverse http://prntscr.com/16145j
hey, friend, it's derivative of sin^-, right?
yeah :)
so, it's "yeah:) " XD
Haha!! i meant yes that is sine inverse that i'm asking about xD
y = Sin^-1(x/a) is equivalent to: x/a = Sin(y) Now implicitly differentiate with respect to x: 1/a = Cos(y) (dy/dx)
Hm... i understand what you're doing but i'm trying to understand how cosine ties into this.
dy/dx = 1/(a Cosy) and then just use some trig and substitution to get to the form that they gave u.
Cos^2 y = 1 - Sin^2 y Cosy = Sqrt( 1 - Sin^2 y)
lol some ol' trig substitution eh?
x/a = Sin(y), so Sin^2 y = (x/a)^2, so Cosy = sqrt( 1 - (x/a)^2 )
wait a minute... how did you turn \[\sin^2y \] into \[\cos y\]...
Sin^2 + Cos^2 = 1 Cos^2 = 1 - Sin^2 Cos = sqrt(1 - Sin^2)
Oh. derp -_-
And so now you've just proved this formula.
pretty much. Differentiation is easy to prove, integration gets annoying
Yes it does.
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