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Mathematics 18 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

In a lottery, there are 2 000 000 tickets to be sold. The prizes are as follows below (picture attached): a) Is this distribution uniform? Explain. b) What is the random variable? c) Show all possible outcomes for winning a prize in the lottery. d) If a ticket cost $2 what is the expected profit per ticket?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@tcarroll010 @satellite73 where u guys at

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@phi @jim_thompson5910 @timo86m @countonme123

OpenStudy (phi):

I think each ticket is equally likely

OpenStudy (anonymous):

The problem can also be found as an example problem #3: http://www.dpcdsb.org/NR/rdonlyres/B4B42B52-D796-4298-9A7C-EAAFDE24F72D/77828/71ProbabilityDistributionsApr11.pdf

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@phi what makes you think that. I thought the probability was different for winning each value prize.

OpenStudy (phi):

only because some prizes can be won by more than 1 ticket

OpenStudy (phi):

Prob of picking a particular ticket is 1/2000000

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I know. For example, the probability of winning a 1000000 prize would be 1/66 correct? or would we say 1/2000000?

OpenStudy (phi):

2,000,000 tickets are sold. the chance of getting the winner is 1/2,000,000

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Here is the confusing part though. Even though it makes sense to say 1/2000000 as the probability of winning the highest prize, if we look at the second column, which is the sigma with x * P(x), that is the expected value column. Now, if we take the probability as 1/2000000, actually if we make the denominator of the probabilities 2000000 for each prize, the expected value comes to be really small. But the expected value should be the "expected" or average value of a prize. If we use 66 as the denominator, the expected value seems fine (I'm getting 19728 as expected value when I use 66 as denominator). I think in this table, we are to only consider the prizes as the denominator and not all the tickets. This is the main confusion here, 2000000 or 66 as denominator. Using 66 makes sense. What do you say? @phi

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@phi where did you go

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@tcarroll010 @phi @satellite73

OpenStudy (phi):

First, you are doing example 3 under "Uniform Distribution" Second, they don't say "consider only winning tickets" I would say they want the expected value of a ticket (not the expected value of a ticket that won one of the prizes)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

hmm lemme think

OpenStudy (anonymous):

wait so in that sense, the expected value would be the average prize per ticket. In this case it would be 0.63125/ticket @phi

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Is that what you mean? @phi

OpenStudy (phi):

yes, that looks right. if you fill in the table and add it up, that is what you get. the final part, is expected "profit" = 0.63125 - 2

OpenStudy (anonymous):

wouldn't that be 2-0.63125 since they get $2 for each ticket while they give 0.63125 for each ticket hence the profit per ticket is $1.36875? @phi

OpenStudy (phi):

yes. It depends whose profit they are talking about. I was thinking of the buyer's profit, but it makes more sense to talk about the lottery's profit.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

well it says "what is the expected profit per ticket", it would make sense to say that its referring to the profit that the lottery company makes.

OpenStudy (phi):

yes, I agree

OpenStudy (anonymous):

now, how is the distribution uniform? it's clear that the probabilities for each outcome is different. @phi so it would be nonuniform correct?

OpenStudy (phi):

I already pointed out this is example 3 of a uniform distribution.... so we know it is uniform. (each ticket is equally likely, and if you plot the distribution, you get a box with length 2,0000,000 and height 1/2,000,000

OpenStudy (phi):

this is like the dice example : equal chance of any particular # from 1 to 6 whether a particular outcome wins or loses does not determine the distribution.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@phi just because its under uniform distribution doesn't mean it is. I mean look at it. For dice example, the way roll each number is 1/6 so distribution is uniform. But here, the probability of winning a prize is different for each prize. then that means that it isn't a uniform distribution. Why do you say that is? I still don't make any sense of your reasoning.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

c) Show all possible outcomes for winning a prize in the lottery. This is the question I really don't know what to do for. @phi @satellite73

OpenStudy (anonymous):

What do they mean by that

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