Integral of 0 to (pi/2) of : ((sec^2)(x))/((tan(x)-1)^2) dx Can anyone solve this???
substitute u = tan (x) -1
What ? Lol
Oh. Sorry :0
not too late, fix it, friend
I Did
hey Loser, here's what I get: integral 1/u^2du = -1/u + C = 1/1-tan(x) + C = sin(x)/cos(x)-sin(x) evaluated at 0 and pi/2 = -1 - 0 = -1 Does this make any sense?
we don't have C, right?
right, Im just first evaluating as an indefinite integral
I don't know why you have to convert to sin, cos
just thought it would be easier to solve, same answer in either case?
is the answer even plausible?
oh yea, you have to, sorry friend,
so it turns \(\dfrac{cosx}{1-sinx}\)from 0 to \(\tfrac{\pi}{2}\)right?
actually, cos(x)/(cos(x)-sin(x))
\[\frac {cos \tfrac{\pi}{2}}{1-sin\frac{\pi}{2}}- \frac{cos0}{1-sin0}\]
=-1
but is that a real answer?
there's an asymptot in the middle if we graph the function
hehe... you got it before me, what do you mean by "real answer"? is there any fake answer?
what is the original function? you just ask for taking integral, how can I know what happen to the original one? Even I know the original function, I may NOT know what happen with it.
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