you can add the two integrals to get:
\[2I=\lim_{0 \rightarrow a}\frac{ f(x)+f(a-x) }{ f(x)+f(a-x) }= a\] solve I to get \[I=\frac{ a }{ 2 }\rightarrow \int\limits_{0}^{a}\frac{ f(x) }{ f(a-x)+f(x) }=\frac{ a }{ 2 }\]
OpenStudy (anonymous):
i.dont.get.it.sorry!
you said substitute \(y=a-x\)? it doesnt make sense..
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
dude I just wanna notify you that after substitution y=a-x you will get the same integral in terms of y, so just change y to x cause it's just a symbol...
OpenStudy (anonymous):
did that make sense now?
OpenStudy (anonymous):
i dont get the change of limits in the first integral you wrote from \(0\) to \(2\)?
OpenStudy (anonymous):
i mean \(0\) to \(a\)?
OpenStudy (anonymous):
a-0 =a
a-a=0
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
and also I'm sorry about the limit, I mean integral..