If f is a function in function space with a zero norm, then would it be necessary to have for f a totally zero function?
Yes, this follows from the axioms of norms. Namely, one axiom is that if the norm of a vector (which can be a function in a function space) is zero, then the vector should be the zero vector, i.e. the zero function.
Or at least it should be zero with the usual function norms (for example in \(L^p\) space). It would be possible to come up with other norms in vector spaces that define some non-zero function to be the zero vector, but usually this is not the case.
You would have to find a really weird addition for the function space to get a additive 0 that is not the zero function though.
If f is a function in function space and \[\left[ f,f \right]\] = 0, then f(x) need not be identically zero for all x, but it can differ from zero only on a set of measure zero.
Yup that's true.
All depends on what function space we are talking about.
Yes it is necessary, This comes from the axiom norms That if the norm of a vector is zero, then the vector should be the zero vector
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