>:O
\[\Large \int\limits \sin^2x \cos^4x\;dx \quad=\quad \int\limits \cos^4x\;dx-\int\limits \cos^6x\;dx\]
\[\Large = \quad I_4-I_6\]
\[\Large I_n=\frac{1}{n}\sin x \cos^{n-1}x+\frac{n-1}{n}\;I_{n-2}\]
@Jpeg16
\[\Large I_6 \quad=\quad \frac{1}{6}\sin x \cos^5x+\frac{5}{6}I_4\]
\[\Large I_4-I_6 \quad=\quad I_4-\left(\frac{1}{6}\sin x \cos^5x+\frac{5}{6}I_4\right)\]
okay, awesome
Simplifies to,\[\Large \frac{1}{6}I_4-\frac{1}{6}\sin x \cos^5x\]
So we need to widdle this one down a bit further,\[\Large I_4 \quad=\quad \frac{1}{4}\sin x \cos^3x+\frac{3}{4}I_2\]
Understand what we're doing? \[\Large I_4 \quad=\quad \int\limits \cos^4x\;dx\] So we're starting with an integral of cos^4, and ending up with (stuff) + integral of cos^2
The power keeps dropping by 2 each time.
wait
I lost you a bit ago
My bad XD
lol, it's okay. How does I4-I6 simplify to that?
So we need to clarify what happens after this step? Did you understand the step that led to this setup, where I6 turned into the bracket portion? \[\Large I_4-I_6 \quad=\quad I_4-\left(\frac{1}{6}\sin x \cos^5x+\frac{5}{6}I_4\right)\]
wait, just a second. I think I get it
I understand how you got that, just not the next step
Distributing the negative gives us,\[\Large I_4-\frac{1}{6}\sin x \cos^5x-\frac{5}{6}I_4\]
Then we want to combine these since they're like terms,\[\Large I_4-\frac{5}{6}I_4\]
\[\Large I_4 \quad=\quad \frac{6}{6}I_4\]
\[\Large \frac{6}{6}I_4-\frac{5}{6}I_4 \quad=\quad \frac{1}{5}I_4\]Right? :o
I think these I's are throwing you off a little bit lol :) It's just some variable thing. So if we (an apple) and we subtract from it (5/6 of an apple), what are we left with? :3
ah, okay
Woop that should be 1/6 in front, typo*
make a little more sense maybe? :x
yeah, definitely
\[\Large \frac{1}{6}I_4-\frac{1}{6}\sin x \cos^5x\]
I'm caught up now. We were going to apply the reduction formula a second time to I4 now, right?
Yes
This worked out kind of nice since we were able to combine the two terms. Widdling the 6 to 4 to 2 to 0 AND the 4 to 2 to 0 would have been a lot of work lol
Applying the Reduction Formula to the 4th power integral gives us:\[\Large I_4 \quad=\quad \frac{1}{4}\sin x \cos^3x+\frac{3}{4}I_2\]
\[\Large \frac{1}{6}\color{#662FFF}{\left(\frac{1}{4}\sin x \cos^3x+\frac{3}{4}I_2\right)}-\frac{1}{6}\sin x \cos^5x\]
Distributing the 1/6,\[\Large \frac{3}{24}I_2+\frac{1}{24}\sin x \cos^3 x-\frac{1}{6}\sin x \cos^5x\]
distribute the 1/6 into I4?
yes
We're almost done, I know it looks like it's going to be difficult. But after we widdle down our I2 to a I0, it's going to get very very easy for us.
so now we're at \[\frac{ 1 }{ 24 }sinxcos ^{3}x+\frac{ 1 }{ 8 }I _{2}-\frac{ 1 }{ 6 }sinxcos ^{5}x\]
do we need to apply the formula one more time?
THE formula, haha
Yah let's apply it once more.
We COULD use the Cosine Double Angle from this point instead. But I want you to see something cool, so we should use the formula once more.
\[\Large I_2 \quad=\quad \frac{1}{2}\sin x \cos x+\frac{1}{2}I_0\]
So that's what the Reduction Formula tells us.
Plugging in:\[\large \frac{1}{8}\left(\frac{1}{2}\sin x \cos x+\frac{1}{2}I_0\right)+\frac{1}{24}\sin x \cos^3 x-\frac{1}{6}\sin x \cos^5x\]
Reminder:\[\Large I_0 \quad=\quad \int\limits \cos^0x\;dx\]
So what does that I_0 become?
cos^0=1?
good, and integrating it gives?
integrating 1*
x
Good good good,\[\large \frac{1}{8}\left(\frac{1}{2}\sin x \cos x+\frac{1}{2}x\right)+\frac{1}{24}\sin x \cos^3 x-\frac{1}{6}\sin x \cos^5x\]
ah, awesome
So what we're left with, after distributing the 1/8, is,\[\Large \frac{1}{16}x+(stuff)\]Right?
ahahahaha....stuff
Here is where the fun part comes in!! :x Make sure you're caught up to this point.
yes, I have it all worked out
We need to evaluate this entire thing at x=0 and x=2pi. Before we worry about that, think about this a moment:\[\Large \sin0=?\]\[\Large \sin2\pi=?\]
sin0=1 and same for 2pi
Woops, you're thinking cosine.
yes, so it's 0
sin=y value
Good! Those are our upper and lower limits. So ANYTHING being multiplied by sinx will become 0, both for x=0 and x=2pi. See what's going to happen? Do you see the magic?? :OO
everything is multiplied by sin, haha
so after all of that the answer is 0?
Everything expect the x, right?
yep
\[\Large \frac{1}{16}x+\cancel{(stuff)}\]
no more stuff
So we're left with,\[\Large \frac{1}{16}x|_0^{2\pi}\]
pi/8
whoaaa
Yay team \c:/ we finally did it!
You might want to look back at your previous thread and decide whether or not the method the other guys used was easier for you. I can admit, this method takes a bit more time. It feels more systematic to me though. I like it :o
yeahhh, this method is more universal. Theirs was confusing me and making me angry
angry XD lolol
you're the best!
That reduction formula sucks but is awesome too
This method might require a bit more work if our limits of integration weren't nice easy numbers. Like if we were going from 0 to pi/4. We'd have to plug in for aaaaall of those terms :[
yeah, I realized that I got kind of lucky with that one, haha
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