Given \(g(x,y) = \sqrt[3]{xy}\). Show that \(g_x(0,0)\) and \(g_y(0,0)\) exist by supplying values for them
If I am doing it right, then \[g_x= \frac{y}{3(xy)^\frac{2}{3}}\] If I put (x,y) = (0,0) into \(g_x\), then I’ll go into trouble
This is a bizarre question.
It's clearly not defined at those points. Do they mean to say the limit exists.
Part (a) of the question asks about the continuity of g(x,y), so I don't think it is asking if the limit exists.
And for the part after this, it actually asks if \(g_x\) and \(g_y\) are continuous at (0,0).
Okay, here is the thing you have to understand: \(|x|\) is not differentiable at \(0\). The same thing applies \(\sqrt[2n]{x}\)
Since \(\sqrt{}\) is the positive root.
Okay how about this...
\[ yy^{-2/3}=y^{1/3} \]Does that help?
But you still get 0/0
You're not getting 0 out of that denominator as far as I can tell.
Why not? \[g_x= \frac{y}{3(xy)^\frac{2}{3}} = \frac{y^\frac{1}{3}}{3x^\frac{2}{3}}\]
Try going back to the definition of a partial derivative maybe?
I don't know how to go about this, but it seems wrong.
Do you mean I have to try finding \(g_x\) by the definition?
The only thing I can think of is some loss of generalization that happened because or using differentiation rules.
Do you need a refresh on the definition?
\[ g_x(0,0) = \lim_{h\to 0}\frac{g(h,0)-g(0,0)}{h} \]
That gives you \(0\)... woah.
I guess using differentiation rules CAN screw you over.
Wait... \[g_x(0,0) = \lim_{h\to 0}\frac{g(h,0)-g(0,0)}{h} = \lim_{h\to 0}\frac{\sqrt[3]{h(0)}-\sqrt[3]{0\times 0}}{h} \]Right?
Yes.
What is the issue?
\[g_x(0,0) = \lim_{h\to 0}\frac{g(h,0)-g(0,0)}{h} = \lim_{h\to 0}\frac{0}{h}\]Hmm..
Did you have quote extension?
Okay. \(0/h=0\)
Mind = blown Why applying differentiation rules doesn't work here? Or, where did I make a mistake?
I have a couple of suspicions.
Yes?
One is that the differentiation rules don't work the same way for partial derivatives.
But here's what Wolf gives us... http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=partial+derivative+%5Csqrt%5B3%5D%7Bxy%7D
The other is that there is an underlying assumption the differentiation rules are making which we are overlooking.
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=partial+derivative+%5Csqrt%5B3%5D%7Bxy%7D+at+%280%2C0%29 The Wolf is not always perfect.
I actually am trying to think of ways that this could happen with a single variable function, but I don't think it is possible.
At (0,0), it is not differentiable, what's the problem?
It is differentiable by the definition though...
This one gives the general case, and if xy=0 http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=partial+derivative+%5Csqrt%5B3%5D%7Bxy%7D This one gives a specific case, if x=y=0 http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=partial+derivative+%5Csqrt%5B3%5D%7Bxy%7D+at+%280%2C0%29 I just don't understand how come is it differentiable, especially when you look at the graph..
* how come it is
Because our concept of differentiable for single variable functions doesn't quite apply to multi variable functions the same way.
You're only differentiating in a single direction.
Okay, just consider: \[ g(x,0)=0 \]
Clearly \(0\) is differentiable.
Are they really the same? Differentiate the function first, the evaluate it, and evaluate it first, then differentiate it.
That is why it works. When you project it onto the \(xz\) plane it becomes differentiable. I think this phenomenon is exclusive to multi-variable derivatives. That makes it a uncommon phenomenon.
@Callisto I'm not actually sure if they're the same by definition, but I think that the "projection" I'm talking about it part of the intent.
the intent of partial derivatives.
Alright... So, to play safe, it is better to start with the definition, right?
The definition is the true answer.
Differentiation rules are a short cut.
I think the insight to be taken from this is: If a multi-variable function returns an indeterminate form at a point, then going back to the original definition could provide some insight.
That definition gives you the mathematical power of a limit. They are powerful devices.
Ok... Thanks for your help!!
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