how do I prove {P,Q((P & (Q V R))=>(S & T))} |- T if the rule for disjunction introduction is {(P=>Q)} |- (~P V Q) ?
What does P,Q in the first expression mean?
P, Q, and ((P & (Q V R))=>(S & T)) are the premisses of the argument and t is the conclusion to prove
Since Q is true, then (Q or R) is true. Since P and (Q or R) are both true, by modus ponens, (S and T) is true. Since (S and T) is true, then T is true.
right, but I have to use the rules of logical inference to show that
in the form of a formal proof how do I demonstrate what you just showed? I started like this: 1 1 P Assumption 2 2 Q Assumption 3 3 ((P & (Q V R))=>(S & T)) Assumption 3 4 (~(P & (Q V R)) V ( S & T) 3 disjunction introduction but now what?
So you're not allowed to use modus ponens yet?
I can use modus ponens, but how would it help in this case?
I would need to prove ((P & (Q V R)) first
I'm confused about the numbers in the formal proof. Can you explain those?
the first number represents the line that supports the statement you are making, which is always a premiss or a list of premisses, the second number is just the line number, then the statement, finally the rule you are using to derive the statement and the line which provides immediate justification (any premisses that justify this line must be included in the first line because they by default also are used to support the statement being made)
so I wrote line 4 the way I did because I am using premiss 3 and the rule of disjunction introduction so my justification is in line 3
It's easy to prove P & (Q V R): 2 5 (Q V R) 2 Disjunctive introduction 1,5 6 P & (Q V R) 1,5 Conjunction introduction Then modus ponens can be used on the next line.
ah but the problem is my teacher insists that is use a different deffinition for disjunction introduction. His rule is really just a logically equivalent substitution, but I am assuming he has his reasons. His rule is: given ( p => q) we infer (~p V q) so I cannot use the method you mentioned, even though it makes the most sense...
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