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Mathematics 19 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

logic: prove: 1.(~h v i ) -> (j->K) 2.(~L * ~M) -> (k->N) 3.(h->L) * (L -> h) 4.(~L * ~M) * ~O therefore : J-> N

OpenStudy (anonymous):

First of all do you know your reasons... that you can use...like law of disjunctive inference

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Hi, I ignored capital letters since it's the only way it made sense to me. I hope I did right: Well, we know by 4 that: (~L * ~M) * ~O has to be true. that means that all ~L, ~M and ~O must be true, and therefore L = M = O = false Now, by 3: (H -> L) * (L -> H) we know that both (H -> L) and (L -> H) are true (!) Since we know L is false, then by (H -> L) we can see there is no way H could be true.. because H = true implies L = true, and that's wrong. So we see that H = false. And since L is false, second part actually implies nothing at all, so that's always true, regardless of H. So now that we know H is false we look at 1: (~H v i)-> (J -> K) That implies if either ~H or i (or both) are true. but since H is false then ~H is true, so it implies that J -> K. Now at last, by 2: (~L * ~M) -> (K -> N) We know that since both L and M are false, then (~L * ~M) is true. So that implies that K -> N Now since we found out that J -> K and K -> N, we can say: J -> N

OpenStudy (anonymous):

thanks

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