Would F(x) = 0 Mean the parabola has no zeros x-intercepts? I had this in my notes but maybe I made a mistake
hey can u elaborate a bit... not getting wat u mean..
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@ganeshie8
good thing to ponder on :) see that the parabola is FLOATING up above the x axis, that means it never touches/cuts x-axis. so there are no real zeroes for this guy
f(x) = ax^2+bx+c we say f(x) has no real zeroes, or f(x) = 0 has no real solutions
now tell me, wats ur exact question ? :)
that was the question and then when it has one x-intercept then it should be f(x)=1 right?
nope. its not that simple at all.
take below parabola :- \(f(x) = 2x^2 + 3x + 3\)
tell me, how u wil find its x-intercepts/zeroes ?
I can use the quadratic formula or factor
x-intercepts occur, when y = 0, that is when function equals 0. so we wil set f(x) = 0, and solve x to find x-intercepts :- \(f(x) = 0\) \(2x^2+3x+3 = 0\) u can solve it by factoring/quadratic formula
^exactly
So it does not necessairly =1 but any number?
but what about one that has two x-intercepts
y = 30000 will not have 30000 intercepts ok
there is a method to knw how many intercepts a parabola can have :- a parabola can have 0 or 1 or 2 x-intercepts
Yea its by the descriminats I understand thanks for the help
yup ! D = 0, means oly 1 xintercept/zero D > 0, means 2 x-intercepts/zeroes D < 0, means 0 real zeroes
np :)
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