An opinion poll asks an SRS of 1500 adults, "Do you happen to jog?" Suppose that the population proportion who jog (a parameter) is p = 0.15. To estimate p, we use the proportion p-hat in the sample who answer "Yes." Justify the use of a normal approximation and find the following probabilities
a) P(p > 0.16) b) P(0.14 < p < 0.16)
@Splash_dance can you help with this one also?
First, why do you need to estimate the proportion of those who jog if you are given it in the beginning of your question? (i.e. you're told that p = 15%).
For starters, we can use the Normal distribution (to approximate the Binomial distribution) because the sample size (n = 1500) is so large.
would a be 0.1379
So are you asking: Given that the population proportion, p, is equal to 0.15, what is the probability that p-hat (the result of your sample) is greater than 0.16?
yes
Well, I might be way off but here it goes: First, the variance of a Bernoulli random variable is given by: \[\sigma ^{2} = p(1-p)\] In addition, when calculating distribution of the sample mean we use the formula: \[\frac{ sample mean - \mu }{ standard error of sample mean }\] So, to calculate the P(p>0.16), first we find the z-score associated with p=0.16: \[= \frac{ 0.16 - 0.15 }{ \sqrt{\frac{ 0.15\times0.85 }{ 1500 }} }\] which is approximately equal to 1.08465. Looking up 1.08 in a Z-score table we get: \[P(Z \le 1.08) = 0.8599\] Thus, the probability that Z is greater than 1.08 is: 1- 0.8599 = 14.01% Does this sound right to you?
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