note for up here in the question e is the belongs to symbol Suppose A and B are sets, and let F = {f l f : A => B}. Also suppose R is a relation on B, and define a relation S on F as follows: S = { (f,g) e F x F l for all x e A((f(x),g(x)) e R}
a) if R is reflexive, must it be the case that S is reflexive?
\[S = \left\{ (f,g) \in F \times F l \forall x \in A((f(x),g(x))) \in R \right\}\]
the l there is the such that line
dam i hated this doing stuff like this when i was taking the class i didnt fully understood it but i give you some ideas F is defined to be a functions that takes in elts of set to and spits out elts of set B R is defined to be a relation on B implies R is a subset of BxB a relation S on F implies S is a subset of FxF
F is actually the set of all functions that go from A to B
reads as the set of all f such that f is a function from A to B
ah yea sorry it takes the set of functions from A to B
so we know R is reflexive then that means for some a in R, aRa
actually my textbook defines it as \[\forall a \in A(aRa)\]
hm.. i guess i do it differently when i took the class what does A mean?
o in that definition it is just the set relation R was on.
we'll just go with your definition then since we know its reflexsive and its a relation on B then a is also a subset of BxB
wait a minute i believe it should be like this: \[\forall a \in B(aRa) \in R \] sine R is a relation on B and not A so \[a \in B x B\] so B is reflexive since R is a relation on B
B is a set though not a relation....
R is a relation on B so for some a in R then aRa implies a in an elt of BxB
it implies (a,a) is an element of B yes
yea my notation is prob off since we did different notation from you the part im really stuck on is after knowing (a,a) is in B how to show it is in the entire F
actually I think this statement is false
why do you say that?
cause in for for S to be reflexive I need to have that \[\forall f \in F( (f,f) \in S)\]
i see what you are trying to say if so then we can find a counter example to this problem where f in F and not in S
yes
let try with simple functions first f(x) = x g(x) = x^2
so these 2 functions are in S and they are not reflexive
You can't tell that unless you define A, B an R first
actually I think I just proved it to be true...
hm.. i couldnt get any counter example since i kept getting both R and S were reflexive
what did you write to make you think its true?
i wanted to say that since (a,a) is in B then (a,a) is also in A but i wasnt sure if i was allowed to do that then (a,b) exist in F so F is reflexive and since S is a relation on F the S must my reflexive
(a,a) in F*
Let h be an arbitrary function that belongs F then (h, h) belongs F cross with F. Since (h, h) belongs to F cross with F, it belongs to S if for x that belong to A, (h(x),h(x)) belongs to R Since h belongs to F we know it is a function from A to B. Thus h(x) belongs to B. Since R is reflexive we know that for b that belong to B (b,b) belongs to R. Since for all b that belong to B (b,b) belongs to R and h(x) belongs to B we have that (h(x),h(x)) belongs to R. Thus h,h) belongs to S. Therefore S is reflexive since h was arbitrary
I think this proof is okay.. but im not too sure about this part: Since for all b that belong to B (b,b) belongs to R and h(x) belongs to B we have that (h(x),h(x)) belongs to R.
think of it this way if all balls are red and I have a ball then my ball has to be red
yea it could work actually its just that i usually see proofs proving it in one direction or the other directions thats all
that is proving it in one direction
actually yea i think its fine
you should probably do a bit more explanation on that sentence i mentioned
other than that i think its fine. I gotta go now some maybe someone else can take a look at it and see if its good or not. Gnight
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