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Mathematics 24 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

http://lhh.tutor.com/SharedSessionFiles/a93f4189-1d99-48c9-8452-1c7166aff076_pic.png Help please?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Power formula can be used for differentiation \[\frac{d~x^n}{dx}=nx^{n-1}\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

then substitute 3 in place of x

OpenStudy (anonymous):

we can re-write the function as \[f(x)=(5+x^2)^{1/2}\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

then apply the power formula

OpenStudy (anonymous):

So I find the derivative of square root of 5+x^2, x/square root of 5+x^2

OpenStudy (anonymous):

if we let \(u=(5+x^2)^{1/2}\) the \(du=(1/2)(5+x^2)^{-1/2}2x~dx\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yup you're right...

OpenStudy (anonymous):

hey is that an inverse function not the derivative of the function f(x)?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

we have to get the inverse function of f(x) before getting the 1st derivative...

OpenStudy (anonymous):

How do I get the inverse?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

if we let y=f(x) our equation will be \[y=\sqrt{5+x^2}\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

and so \[y^2=5+x^2\]\[y^2-5=5-5+x^2\]\[y^2-5=x^2\]\[\sqrt{y^2-5}=x\]and \(f^{-1}(x)=x\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

this is the equation we need to get the 1st derivative...

OpenStudy (anonymous):

almost the same as before, we have just inverse the function but same calculus formula applied

OpenStudy (anonymous):

You know that you can compute the derivative of \(f^{-1}(x)\) without having to compute the inverse...right?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

by just replacing position of \(x^2\) and 5 and proceed to subtraction?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Take \(g(x)=f^{-1}(x)\). We then know that \(f(g(x))=x\). Differentiating both sides by chain rule tells us that \[f^{\prime}(g(x))\cdot g^{\prime}(x) = 1 \implies g^{\prime}(x) = \frac{1}{f^{\prime}(g(x))}.\] Rewriting this in terms of \(f^{-1}(x)\) yields \[(f^{-1})^{\prime}(x) = \frac{1}{f^{\prime}(f^{-1}(x))}\] For this problem, we have \(f(x) = \sqrt{5+x^2}\) and note that \(f(2)=3\implies f^{-1}(3)=2\). Therefore \(\large\displaystyle (f^{-1})^{\prime}(3) = \frac{1}{f^{\prime}(f^{-1}(3))} = \frac{1}{f^{\prime}(2)} = \ldots\) Does this make sense? :-)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

got your point... :)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

It makes sense.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

thanks @Orion1213 and @ChristopherToni

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