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help me .... inverse Laplace transform of {1}
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um, just integrate e^(-st) dt
from 0 to inf of course
\[\int e^{-st}dt=\frac{1}{s}(-e^{-s\infty}+e^{-s0})\]
it is answer for lapace transfrom not inverse
really ... hmmm, i guess i need better glasses
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:)
interesting, the wolf says it something called a dirac delta function
which seems to be related to the heaviside step function
i often find pauls site readable http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/DE/DiracDeltaFunction.aspx i dont know enough about this topic to offer anything else
thank u
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have fun with it :)
i think the slove is ( s )
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