Question

Let I=∫ln x dx
since there is no function before ln x so we can write 1 before ln x
=∫lnx dx -∫{d/dx (1) ∫ln x dx} dx
=1/x-∫0.1/x dx
=1/x
I=1/x is this right?

Answer 1

thank you

Answer 2

@zepdrix

Answer 3

SORRy the answer is 1/x +c

Answer 4

@nincompoop nino is this right??

Answer 5

@amistre64

Answer 6

@jim_thompson5910

Answer 7

@ganeshie8

Answer 8

@zepdrix Help :(

Answer 9

No no no.
You did your parts backwards. D:

Answer 10

\[\Large\bf\sf \int\limits (1)\ln x\;dx\]U=1
V=ln x

Answer 11

Woops*

Answer 12

U=ln x
V=1

Answer 13

thats what i told to my teacher but he said before ln x 1 must be placed

Answer 14

Yes I placed a before the ln x... right?
It doesn't matter which order they are written, that doesn't dictate which one is U and the other is V.

Answer 15

\[\Large\bf\sf \int\limits U Vdx\quad=\quad \int\limits VUdx\]It doesn't matter if you write the 1 before or after.
If I'm understanding you correctly.

Answer 16

You just have to choose the correct parts.
U=ln x
V=1
for this problem.

Answer 17

thank you very much @zepdrix :)