could someone explain to me why this doesn't diverge?
It converges to \( e^{-4}\)
how were you able to figure this out? :/
let y = RHS ln(y) = ln(RHS) apply L'hospital rule
Let a be x real number. It can be shown that \[ \lim_{n->\infty} \left(1+ \frac x n \right)^n=e^x \] Here how to prove it \[ y_n=\left(1+ \frac x n \right)^n\\ \ln(y_n) = n \ln\left(1+ \frac x n \right)=\frac{ \ln\left(1+ \frac x n \right) }{\frac 1 n} \\ \text{ Apply L'Hospital rule now, taking derivative with respect to n} \]
\[ \frac{\frac{\partial }{\partial n}\log \left(\frac{x}{n}+1\right)}{\frac{\partial }{\partial n}\frac{1}{n}}=-\frac{x}{\frac{(-1) \left(n^2 \left(\frac{x}{n}+1\right)\right)}{n^2}}=\frac{x}{\frac{x}{n}+1} \]
\[ \lim_{n\to infty }\frac{x}{\frac{x}{n}+1}=x\\ \ln(y_n) \to x\\ y_n\to e^x \] We are done.
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