Definite integrals
a function of which a given function is the derivative, i.e., which yields that function when differentiated, and which may express the area under the curve of a graph of the function.
Have you considered a substitution? \(u = \cos(x)\), maybe?
@willet : Yes, @tkhunny is correct.
@tkhunny \[-\int\limits_{-1}^{1} \frac{ 1 }{ 16+u^2 }\] @tkhunny thats where im at, I think i did everything correctly
Okay, now about about another substitution? \(\tan^{2}(v) + 1 = \sec^{2}(v)\)
Where did you get that from?
It's an identity you should know. If you need to brush up on your trigonometry, this would be a good time to do it. You will need it. This one is easy to create on your own. Start with the Pythagorean Identity in sine and cosine and divide by cos^2(x).
If you let your initial substitution be,\[\Large\rm 4u=\cos x\]I think it will work out a smidge easier. You get something that looks a lot closer to the arctangent integral thing.
im lost
Right. There was no need to do two substitutions. It may have helped you see it all the way through, I suppose. You could do \(4\cdot\tan(u) = \cos(x)\) and go straight to it!
I have to get it in the form of \[\int\limits \frac{ du }{ a^2+u^2 }\] right
@nincompoop can you help? im lost
you already have it in that form. a=4 from your earlier post. do you remember how to do trig sub? i can tell you right now that will be an arctan
and you forgot to put your du on top earlier. what calc are you in, 1 or 2?
calc 1
ok then your professor probly taught you a formula and said memorize it. I suggest you learn how to derive it if you are going higher than calc 1. anyway i dont have it memorized, but i can show you how to get the answer without the formula. or look in your book on the first page and it tells you the formula
Once I have it in that form, I put it in 1/a(arctan)u/a + C
k so your a=4(let me know if you dont know why), what else do you know?
I'm not sure how the technical way of saying it, but a = 4 because a^2 = 16
and I have u = cosx
yup, what do you get when you plug and chug in the formula?
its gonna be 1/4(arctan(cosx/4)) and its not + C. Can you tell me why?
why not?
because this is a definite integral. we are given limits from 0 to pi so we have to evaluate it. and I forgot a negative btw.
Oh ok
alright im going to bed, any last questions?
-1/4( arctan(cos(pi)/4) - arctan(cos(o)))
Wouldn't that be cos(0)/4? at the end?
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