How would you solve this?
\[\cos^{-1} p + \cos^{-1} q+\cos^{-1} r=\pi \]
correction : What is the value of \[p^2 + q^2 + r^2 + 2pqr\]
This might work but try moving one of those arccos over with the pi and the taking cosine of both sides That might help I haven't tried it yet
I got the answer guys! thanks for trying to help though! :) :D
so here is a question there are an infinite number of triples that add up to \(\pi\) so there should be an infinite number of answers but since each could be \(\frac{\pi}{3}\) so it it is always the same, wouldn't it be \(\cos^{-1}(p)=\cos^{-1}(q)=\cos^{-1}(r)=\frac{\pi}{3}\) making \(p=q=r=\frac{1}{2}\) ?
i guess i mean if \[p^2 + q^2 + r^2 + 2pqr\] is a constant, then it would be that constant if \(p=q=r=\frac{1}{2}\)
or for that matter \(p=q=0,r=1\)
hmm looks like \(p^2 + q^2 + r^2 + 2pqr=1\) doesn't it i wonder why...
\[\cos^{-1}(p)+\cos^{-1}(q)=\pi-\cos^{-1}(r)\] \[\cos(\cos^{-1}(p)+\cos^{-1}(q))=\cos(\pi-\cos^{-1}(r))\] \[\cos(\cos^{-1}(p))\cos(\cos^{-1}(q))-\sin(\cos^{-1}(p))\sin(\cos^{-1}(q))=\cos(\pi)\cos(\cos^{-1}(r))+0\] \[pq-\sqrt{1-p^2}\sqrt{1-q^2}=-r\] \[\sqrt{1-p^2}\sqrt{1-q^2}=-r-pq\] \[(1-p^2)(1-q^2)=r^2+2rpq+p^2q^2 \] \[1-q^2-p^2+p^2q^2=r^2+2rpq+p^2q^2 \] \[r^2+p^2+q^2+2rpq=-p^2q^2+p^2q^2+1\] so 1
wow!
i got rid of that negative too soon but i squared both sides afterwards so it's okay i guess
damn i was trying to copy it but it is all different lines of latex at least i got the 1
I don't know how to do a new line.
\[x+y=2\\ x-y=1\]
\[\cos^{-1}(p)+\cos^{-1}(q)=\pi-\cos^{-1}(r) \\ \cos(\cos^{-1}(p)+\cos^{-1}(q))=\cos(\pi-\cos^{-1}(r)) \\ \cos(\cos^{-1}(p))\cos(\cos^{-1}(q))-\sin(\cos^{-1}(p))\sin(\cos^{-1}(q))= \\ \cos(\pi)\cos(\cos^{-1}(r))+\sin(\pi)\sin(\cos^{-1}(r)) \\ pq-\sqrt{1-p^2}\sqrt{1-q^2}=-r \\ -\sqrt{1-p^2}\sqrt{1-q^2}=-r-pq \\ (1-p^2)(1-q^2)=r^2+2rpq+p^2q^2 \\ 1-p^2-q^2+p^2q^2=r^2+2rpq+p^2q^2 \\ r^2+p^2+q^2+2rpq=p^2q^2-p^2q^2+1 \]
ok I just need a //
oops \\
Your way is much easier.
like this a lot given that it is a constant, it has to be 1, but i had not idea why it had to be constant
Well I guess we proved it is a constant but I don't know if I can visualize it right now.
not me
guess it has something to do with the interior angles adding to \(\pi\)
oh no nvm, it is that weird expression that is a constant i was thinking along the lines of \(\cos^{-1}(x)+\sin^{-1}(x)=1\) but this is different completely
i mean \(\pi\) doh
or maybe i mean \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) i must be tired
hmm...sleepy. no more thinking.
g'night
night
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