Evaluate the following limits, if they exist.
\[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^+} \frac{ \cos x }{ \ln x }\]
Please don't laugh at me, I am new to this stuff. I am doing my best tough. I hate getting disconnected. The limit will be equal to (on both sides ) to \(\LARGE\color{blue}{ \bf \lim_{x \rightarrow 0}~\frac{cos(x)}{log(x)} }\) L'H'S tp derive top and bottom, \(\LARGE\color{blue}{ \bf \lim_{x \rightarrow 0}~\frac{-sin(x)}{1/x} }\) and that gives, \(\LARGE\color{blue}{ \bf \lim_{x \rightarrow 0}~\frac{x(~-sin(x)~~)}{1} }\) take it from here.
I would plug in zero now, and so yes, the limit does exist at ?
but if I just plug in 1, I get cox(1)/ln(1) = 1/1. So could it equal 1?
I wasn't on for a while, so I a just saying that I think that you should plug in zero (not 1, because x->0 that is what the problem says) and plug it in now
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