Question

Hi need help on this question please? Question will be attached as a picture. Thanks

Answer 1

was able to do the other problems but have never seen one like this during class or on any other worksheet

Answer 2

It seems that for values of t between 0 and pi, the function is defined as f(t) = sin t. Once we go beyond t>pi, our function is arbitrarily set to 0.

We ought to split the integral into two parts: One that goes from 0 to pi, and one that goes from pi to infinity. The integral going from pi to infinity of of the function f(t)=0, so it is lost. That just leaves you with the first integral from 0 to pi of f(t) = sin t. You can evaluate that in several ways. Does that make sense?

Answer 3

yes thanks