Find the analytic function f(z) = u+iv in terms of z if u-v = e^x (cos y - sin y)
i know that if f is analytic, then \(u_x = v_y \\ u_y = - v_x\)
cauchy hehe
yep
so how do i start ?
There are many definitions of analytic functions. But in terms of complex analysis like this, we're talking about the Cauchy-Riemann equations that you mentioned.
just apply the thm f(z) = u+iv f(z)=u(x,y) + i v(x,y) f'(z)=ux+ivx ....
so i differentiate both sides of u-v = e^x (cos y - sin y) once with x , once with y ?
to get ux , uy, vx, vy
yep
why didn't i think of that earlier :P
thanks i'll solve it and let you know my answer to verify!
2 heads are better than 1 @hartnn :[
Since \(u-v=e^x\cos y - e^x\sin y\), my first attempt would be to try two candidates for \((u,v)\) : \((e^x\cos y,e^x\sin y)\) and \((-e^x\sin y, -e^x\cos y)\). it would take one minute to verify if this is true.
does \(\Large v_x = e^x \sin y \)
wow, what a guess reemii !
(not sure it deserves a wow..) I thought you were discarding this bet to go for the general method.
how do you find it with ux,uy,vx,vy? im curious
i will upload my work in a minute
can any of you check whether my work is correct ?? any mistakes ?
@BSwan @Miracrown @reemii
are you guys also getting \(\Large f(z)=e^x cosy+i e^x siny \)
looking it over still good so far...
in my opinion, once you obtain \(v_x\) with the addition of the two equation (end of page 1), you don't need more play with the equations. integrate wrt. x the function \(v_x\), and since \(-u_y=v_x\), integrate wrt \(y\) the function \(-v_x\).
perfect :) only add C :P hehe
and it's correct I think. \(\checkmark\)
Yes, it all looks good. Just one part concerns me But I want to check this is correct against your work
Thanks you so much! i wish i could give all of you medals :)
you can give all of us thanks, that's all what we need!
awesoem
thanks <3
integral of f ' (z) w.r.t. dx = integral (e^x cos(y) + i e^x sin(y) ) dx implies f(z) = e^x cos(y) + i * e^x sin(y) + F(y) where F(y) is some function of y, possibly complex. We should also examine f ' (z) w.r.t. y f ' (z) w.r.t. y = u_y + i v_y
^ you got a point!
= - v_x + i u_x by (A) (the cauchy riemann equations)
f(z) = integral of f ' (z) w.r.t. dy = integral ( - e^x sin(y) + i * e^x cos(y) ) dy
= e^x cos(y) + i e^x sin(y) + G(x)
therefore G(x) = F(y) this can only happen if they are both 0. so it works out in the end, but maybe it's not obvious to show
infact it is incorrect, if i don't verify it...!
I think that the method @hartnn used is general and works always.
Well, I mean, if it's not obvious, yes
this is in real case , in complex just take a constants
So we agree up to that point then. Then the issue becomes representing x, y in terms of z,z-bar This method will work, but I mean you run into not so nice functions easily where you won't be able to get closed form solutions pretty quickly But yes "it works"
how do i express my answer in terms of z ?
:) when u verify u would had a problem with i incase of G(X) or F(Y") function so be carfull what to choose
so we have to do this which is a bit messy imho
x = (z+z-bar)/2 z-bar = complex conjugate y = (z-z-bar)/2 over (2i)** sorry for y So You substitute these into the equation for f(z) But we also need to know how to take sin and cos of complex numbers it is extended to complex arguments like so
cos(z) = 1/2(e^(iz) + e^(-iz)) and sin(z) = forgot the sign thinking
sin(z) = i (e^(iz) - e^(-iz) ) / 2 Just let me look it up I am not sure
ux = e^x cos y uy = -ex sin y i can find 'u' from here ?
sin(z) = (e^(iz) - e^(-iz) ) / (2i) gotta keep the i in the denominator sorry I have no complex analysis textbook with me here so Let's just start with the cos(y) cos(y) = cos( (z-z-bar) / (2i) ) = (e^(i* (z-z-bar) / (2i) ) + e^(-i (z-z-bar) / (2i) ) ) / 2
= (e^((z-z-bar)/2) + e^(-(z-z-bar)/2))/2 yes hartnn
then u = e^x cos y
you will arrive at the same f(z) this way
right ??
yes
so f(z) will just be z ?
because v is also e^x sin y
So let's multiply this by e^x = e^( (z+z-bar)/2) e^x*cos(y) = (1/2) * (e^z + e^z-bar)
uhm, I'm not sure. I hope not :(
No, I don't think so so? z = x + i y not u + i v
oh yes :(
this is tough to type anyway... just checking it
yes so e^x cos(y) = (1/2) * (e^z+e^z-bar) now for the other term
this question was not supposed to be so difficult...
sin(y) = sin ( (z-z-bar)/(2i)) = 1/(2i) * (e^(i * (z-z-bar)/(2i) ) - e^(-i *(z-z-bar)/(2i) ) )
:) now multiply by e^((z+z-bar)/2)) again
i got your method, will try to find it. thanks, no need to further explain
alright =) I am sorry that it's so tedious. Not much I can do about that
e^z should be final answer f(z) = e^z
Now that I worked it out. I suppose it's shown somewhere that Euler's identity over the complex numbers takes the form we have here, so if you knew that you could immediately write down e^z from e^x cos(y) + i e^x sin(y). But I did not know that
oh wow! saves lot of work! *deleting all those extra work* :P
Of course, did you expect different ;) just kidding
If only in life, hard work translated always to the correct answer
it does! sooner or later :)
Optimism :)
as always ;)
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