Question. Help appreciated.

Question

anonymous · Answer

attachment

anonymous · Answer

@trueseminole

anonymous · Answer

ok so ill do this

anonymous · Answer

let's start with option 1

anonymous · Answer

M1V1 = M2V2 right?

anonymous · Answer

Yup.

anonymous · Answer

nah let's just do C beuase thats the answer ill just show you how i got it

anonymous · Answer

The method will be enough. Or else I'll be tempted to copy it. My jammed brain would remain forever jammed.

anonymous · Answer

closed the tap by accident

anonymous · Answer

okay so i kinda lost my way here

anonymous · Answer

im sorry this is difficult to solve

anonymous · Answer

@wio

anonymous · Answer

@iambatman

anonymous · Answer

Yes,

$$M2 = \frac{ (M1~ \times~ V1) }{ V2 }$$

anonymous · Answer

I'm assuming you know what everything means in this formula?

anonymous · Answer

The M2 obtained in the first case will be M1 in the next case ? And we are supposed to continue in this manner ?

anonymous · Answer

You'll have to convert to litres as well.

anonymous · Answer

$$M2= \frac{ 5.6~ \times ~ 0.046}{ 0.116 } = 2.22 $$

$$M2 = \frac{ (2.22~\times~0.058) }{ 0.248 } = ...$$

Etc, I left the units out but it's pretty obvious what they are, and yes.

anonymous · Answer

I'm getting the final answer as 0.157 M. Is that right ?

anonymous · Answer

I don't know, I'm not doing it all.

anonymous · Answer

But long as you understand what is going on, it should be right.

anonymous · Answer

Okay. Thank you very much, Batman / Dark Knight (whichever you prefer).

anonymous · Answer

Lol, np :)