Indicate the correct alternatives for the following-: (listing the question and option)
\[for 0<\phi<\pi/2\]
if \[x=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\cos^{2n} \phi,y=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\sin^{2n}\phi \]
\[z=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\cos ^{2n}\phi(\sin^{2n}\phi)\]
then-:(more then one correct) xyz=xz+y xyz=xy+z xyz=x+y+z xyz=yz+x
@ganeshie8 @wio @ParthKohli pls help
@Luigi0210
@ganeshie8 help
by 2n , do you mean power or derivative ?
My first idea is to convert it into exponential form and see what happens.
@Kainui still not sure 2n is power or n derevative ?
I think if it was derivatives then it wouldn't converge.
it would if it was double derevative then for sin note that sin x=- sin '' x cos x = cos '' x ect
Yeah but those sums look like: 1-1+1-1+1-1+... and won't converge
Answer my messages
Actually if you look at this like a geometric series, you can solve this fairly easily it would seem. For instance, \[\Large x=\frac{1}{1-\cos^2(x)}\] The rest should follow from trig identities fairly nicely.
\[\large xyz = \dfrac{1}{\sin^2\phi \cos^2\phi \left(1-\sin^2\phi \cos^2\phi\right)}\] ?
nice :)
@taylor12344 answer my messages toooo
does any1 now about Vn method shortcut
above is a shortcut method ^
yes i got the question
you just need to know the infinite sum of converging geometric series formula : \(\dfrac{1}{1-r}\)
i was able to solve this question on my own
but i forgot to close the question
what method did u use
i used sum of infinity in a/1-r and then i started substiuting the value of
{sorry} i used the value of phi
and ticked the suitble option
great, we all are on the same page :)
ok
It's really not a hard formula to derive. In fact, it's probably one of the most satisfying things in math to do. \[\Large S=1+a+a^2+a^3+... \\ \Large S-1=a+a^2+a^3+... \\ \Large \frac{S-1}{a}= 1+a+a^2+a^3+... \\ \Large \frac{S-1}{a}=S\] Now you can just solve for your sum S with a little algebra. =P
yes i solved the question
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