Ask your own question, for FREE!
Physics 21 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

Is is possible for an object to have a nonzero acceleration but, a zero velocity?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

For differential period of time yes.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Anssiah is correct. For an infinitesimally small period of time, an object could have a non-zero acceleration, but a zero velocity, with respect to some inertial reference frame (if you aren't familiar with inertial reference frames, just ignore that part). Let's look at a scenario where this happens. Imagine you are throwing a ball straight up into the air. What will happen? Gravity will pull the ball back down so that you can catch it, right? If we describe this motion using physics, we get to see your scenario occur. When the ball is released, the ball is moving upwards, but gravity gives it a downward acceleration (9.81 m/s^2 downward). This acceleration stays constant through the entire motion (the acceleration will always be non-zero). The ball continues to move upwards, however, because it's initially velocity was in that direction. It slows down as it goes upward, though, as a result of that downward acceleration. Eventually it reaches the top of the throw, and for just an instant, the ball stops completely. It then begins to fall back down to you. At that instant, at the very top of the throw, the acceleration of the ball is still 9.81m/s^2 downward, but the ball has no velocity.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

you guys rock!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! thank you very much <3

Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!
Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!