Can someone please explain how work done on a gas is equal to -Pi * Vi * ln(Vf / Vi) ?
This is one of our class slides. I'm confused at how $$ W = -\int P\ dV $$ turns into $$ W = -P_i V_i \int \frac{dV}{V} $$
Just take a calm look at the question again, you see it gives the gas law pv =nRT ?
Yes, I see that it gives the gas law. Pressure * Volume is a constant, and is also equal to the number of moles, times the gas constant R, times the temperature.
I know it's right there, and it's probably extremely obvious.
Just having trouble seeing it right away.
Ok, the gas law is true in general for an ideal gas, but your question considers the special case of an Isothermal change, you see that ?
And so that is why we can say, for these isothermal changes, that PV is constant. - ok so far ?
Okay, so it's constant because in an isothermal change - the temperature remains constant, and therefore n, R, and T are all constant.
Right. So now, suppose we know p and v at the start of the change, and at some other point in the process, so we have Pi and Vi, the initial values, and we have P and V some time later. What can we say about PV ?
Sorry, i meant we know Pi and Vi only - what can we say about PV a bit later ?
PV is still going to equal the same value, but V will increase from 2m^3 to 3m^3, and therefore P has to drop proportionally
well if as we said above pv is constant, then we know that pv at the start is the same as pv a bit later, in other words PiVi = PV - we agree on that
So now, look at your first integral - just take a look at it for a moment to remind yourself what it looks like - ok ?
Agreed
Ok, the problem is, we don't know what to do with P - but wait ! what's another expression we can use instead of P ?
Hint - we were just talking about it.
I think I see it now! $$ P_i V_i = PV $$ $$ P = \frac{P_iV_i}{V} $$
yes, i think you got it !
PiVi is just a constant and can come outside the integral when you replace P with PiVi/V
then you have to integrate 1/V, which i am sure you know is natural log of V - problem solved ?
Okay, I understand now that you pointed it out, thank you! But let me ask you - *why* is it that I needed to replace P with PiVi, since P is independent of the integral? Is it because we needed Vi for the integral?
And yes I have no problems with integration
Correction: "*why* is it that I needed to replace P with PiVi/V"
well to do the integral you need to express p in terms of the variable of integration, which in this case is V
Ahhh, okay, I think I understand now. Thank you for your help!
welcome
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