I don't understand the following equation change in classical mechanics...
\[\frac{ m }{ k } \int\limits_{0}^{v_0} \frac{ vdv }{ v + \frac{ m }{ k }g }\]
to
\[\frac{ m }{ k } \int\limits_{0}^{v_0} 1 - \frac{ \frac{ m }{ k }g }{ v + \frac{ m }{ k } g}dv\]
I just dont see how the equation is changed in this way, but it's the instructors solution and makes the integral doable during a test format. Any help?
In the first equation add and subtract the following term in the integrand\[\frac{ (v +\frac{ m }{ k }g) }{ (v +\frac{ m }{ k }g) } \] then collect terms to get the second equation
This is a common technique in changing the form of an expression without changing its value. ie adding and subtracting an expression at the same time.
Im used to multiplying an exp by an exp equal to one, but adding and subtracting is a little less common, or was, during my school so far. Ill try to work through it and see how it goes, thanks for the tip
Your welcome.
Well, that was easy. Thanks again
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