I just need someone to tell me what this question wants in dummy terms: Suppose that p is a polynomial of degree d. Given any \(x_0\in R\), show that the \((d+1){th}\) Taylor Polynomial for p at \(x_0\) is equal to p.
I don't understand how you can have a (d+1)th for a d degree function.
@SithsAndGiggles
d+1 degree Taylor polynomial, do you know what a taylor polynomial is?
i think you need to show that after differentiating a polynomial d+1 times, you get a zero term and all remaining terms will be 0
yes, it's more of a the d+1 will end with a 0. because past d the deriv is zero. So I don't understand what it's asking
oh, thanks ganeshie. I guess my reason for confusion is what I am supposed to show
what it is saying if we plug in x0 for x in the polynomial of degree d it should equal the same thing as a taylor series of degree d+1
yeah i have no clue yet how to start the proof too, but it is clear what we need to prove
I know how to prove it, but I just didn't understand the problem thanks
can you medal Miracrown for helping for me ganeshie?
no medal me
already gave it to mira :) fib you medal dan maybe..
<3
and x0 is a real number
i medal ganeshi
ah basically its a matter of taylor series expansion being the approimations wrt to derivatives
for a certain nth degree polynomial all the succeding taylor approximations after d+1 yeild zero so
how to start a proof like this
it should be sufficient to just state it in words right ?
i am going with based off of the definition of the taylor p, if a deriv =0 then the term of the poly=0 so if we show d+1,2,3 by induction =0 then we are left with the taylor of d
all polynomials can be rewritten in form kth polynomial = ax^k+bx^(k-1).... Therefore the k+1 derivative of this kth polynomial = 0
(k+1)th derivative
consider a polynomial of degree "d" by taylor theorem, the taylor series equals this polynomial. however after differentating this polynomial for d+1 times, we get f^(d+1) = 0 and thus all the subsequent will be 0. that means the first d+1 terms of taylor series equals the polynomial \(\square\)
y'all want some more? I have like 4 more due tomorrow at 1 that I need interpretations so I understand what it is asking
ya only if u gimme ur medals this time
but you don't have to complete them like you are
bahahahah
as told by ganeshie, I have passed the medal
Also, I hate analysis. Any help is appreciated
just a quick q, does taylor series exists for all functions ?
well, essentially it is the MVT for derivatives, so so long as it's differentiable, I think so
consider a polynomial of degree "d" by taylor theorem, the taylor series, `if it exists`, equals this polynomial. however after differentating this polynomial for d+1 times, we get f^(d+1) = 0 and thus all the subsequent will be 0. that means the first d+1 terms of taylor series equals the polynomial
yeah its redundant if we agree that the series exists for all polynomials
as all polynomials are differentiable
def exists for all poly, but what about trancendentals? (sp? sorry)
what does a transcendental mean
A transcendental function is a function that does not satisfy a polynomial equation whose coefficients are themselves roots of polynomials, in contrast to an algebraic function, which does satisfy such an equation.
hey it's essentially p=np.... freaky
dp/dn= p+dp/dn D_2 = dp/dp + d^2p/dn^2 D_N= d^(n-1)/dp^(n-1) +d^np/dn^n
all derivatives exist
so ud need infinite taylor approximations
yep like sin and cos
yah
sin and cos are infinite polynomials kinda
like u know ax^4+bx^3... looks like this w|dw:1415089858666:dw|
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