Pretend we have f(x)=a|x| for some value a. Then f'(x)=a|x|/x what is f'(0) if a=0? Multiple Choice. A) f'(0) doesn't exist because 0*|0|/0 is undefined. B) f'(0)=0 because f(x)=0 when a=0
B. It would only be undefined if x=0. Because 0 would be in the denominator. But since a=0, we know that anything multiplied by 0 is also 0, and anything divided by 0 is 0. So yes, B is the answer.
You have to piecewise define the derivative, see if left and right limits are equal
Sorry, I read it wrong, it is undefined
Not really since f'(x)=a|x|/x gives both right and left derivative
I'm more inclined to f'(0)=0 since a=0 implies that f(x)=0 for any x
you have to define it for x>0 and x<0, the function doesn't exist at zero (0/0) so you need to see if the limit exists
for any a, then pick the subcase
What I think maybe is if f(x)=ag(x) then f'(x)=ag'(x) doesn't matter if a=0 if a=0 then f(x)=0*g(x)=0 <--but I'm kinda worried about saying f(x)=0 for all x if a=0 since g'(x) might have some restrictions due to the curve of y=g(x)
the function exists for zero, but the limit doesn't exist at zero (correction to your statement)
if a =0 then you do have a trivial solution
well if a=0 doesn't this allow us to say f(x)=0 for any x?
the derivaative doesn't here, the initial fn yes, oops
you know what I'm pretty sure since f(x) does exist for all x then f(x)=a|x|=0|x|=0 for all x therefore f'(x)=0 for all x
that is the trivial solution, yes. But don't you have to show work?
that is the work
hmm good argument
also i made up this question
meh, ok
hehe! you made it up. interesting!
now if a was some other value then we would have f(x)=a|x| then f'(x)=a|x|/x and if a doesn't equal 0 then f'(0) doesn't exist
the question is, does it exist for any other a though?
how are they getting that derivative value?
The derivative of |x| is |x|/x
I would have just piecewise defined it... it's easier to see the reason the deriv doesn't exist
|x|/x doesn't exist when x=0
True, for any a f'(0) doesn't exist
Oh, I don't consider that the derivative, I guess that's why.
@xapproachesinfinity I did ask the question because I have seen similar questions asked on OS.
@FibonacciChick666 there is nothing wrong with writing it as a piecewise function
both ways look pretty
they are the same in the end, but then it is easier to confuse the jump singularity at 0.
I see!
also, the second derivative, does exist and I'm not sure how that fn would do with the quotient rule
the second derivative will still have problem in 0?
nope, because the limit exists, it will equal zero
eh right! my attention went to something else
f(x)=a|x|=0 if a=0 => f'(x)=0 =>f'(0)=0 f(x)=a|x| for a not 0=>f'(x)=a|x|/x =>f'(0) does not exist -- this is my summary for this problem... I'm cool with this. Is this what everyone got back from this discussion? My choice B then would be right.
if f(x)=|x| f''(x)=0 if x does not equal 0
f''(0) does not exist if f(x)=|x|
yes, B would be correct, and hm are you sure, becasue we are working with limits, I think it does
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