Show that a nonzero subgroup of an additive abelian divisible group need not also be divisible. Please, help
@Zarkon
Good. Now, let's get to work ^^
I am waiting :)
Define a divisible group :)
\[nA:=\{na : a \in A\}=A\]
Right.
for all \(n\in Z\)
Now, one of the simplest divisible groups, what is it? :D
Q
Yup. And it has a pretty well known subgroup that doesn't quite follow the same rules, what is it? :D
Z
Yup. Z is a subgroup of Q. Now, tell me, for any integer n, is it true that nZ = Z ? ;)
nope
because you say "for any integer n", but it is true if it turn to "there exists" :) that is n =1, right?
Yes, but that's not enough to show that Z is a divisible group. It has to be true for any integer, n lol Suppose n was 2, instead? Then 2Z = the set of even integers, right? Most certainly not Z at all :P
Question: We will go to general argument, right? not a particular case of Q and Z, right?
What do you mean by that? All the question wants is for you to show that the subgroup of a divisible group need not be divisible itself. All that needs is an example :D
Oh.... :) my stupid brain just think of expand the problem to general one. I thought that must be true for ANY case.
But have to confirm: You mean we just give out 1 case only (as above) and it is enough?
I see whenever they say :"Show that....... is Not...." , most the case is just giving out a counterexample. but when they say: "Prove that......." it means I have to prove it is true for any case. Am I right? I am sorry for those questions. Studying Math in English is a double challenge to me. :)
@Supreme-Kurt are you kicked out of the net again? hahaha.... It happens to me also.
I have class in 10 minutes, have to go. Thanks for respond @Supreme_Kurt. :)
you just need to show the above case
"show" and "prove" in some cases can be interchanged
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