Question

Us Intermediate Value theorem to show that F(x)=sin(x)=1 has a zero

Answer 1

sin(x) = 1 is not a function

Answer 2

did you mean sin(x)+1?

Answer 3

that would not make sense either actually...please edit the question.

Answer 4

f(x)=sin(x)+1 does have a zero when sin(x)=-1
so why would f(x)=sin(x)+1 not make sense?

Answer 5

though he could have meant also f(x)=sin(x)-1
and that would have zeros when sin(x)=1

Answer 6

I wonder if also there was a meant to be some interval given

Answer 7

If you meant to say f(x) = sin(x)+1, you cannot use the intermediate value theorem. Why not? Because there is no sign change (sin(x)+1 is always nonnegative) needed to show there is a root.

Answer 8

oh true
never negative

Answer 9

right that is what I was referring to when I said it would not make sense.

Continuous on [a,b] and we get an element in (a,b), so 1 or -1 would not make sense....
no idea