When is this statement true?
\[\Large (x+y)^n=x^n+y^n\]
Hmmm, when you think about the binomial theorem...
It's only really true when \(n=1\) or when \(x\) or \(y\) equals \(0\)... maybe a few other special cases
It's sort of a trick question. How can this statement be true if n is greater than 1 and x and y are arbitrary nonnegative integers?
\[ (x+y)^n = \sum_{k=0}^n {n\choose k}x^ky^{n-k} \]
\[ (x+y)^n = \sum_{k=0}^n {n\choose k}x^ky^{n-k} = nx^n+ny^n +\sum_{k=1}^{n-1} {n\choose k}x^ky^{n-k} \]
You're not wrong, but you've not solved it yet either. There's a particular set of limitations you have to put on it. =P
\[ \frac 1n\sum_{k=1}^{n-1} {n\choose k}x^ky^{n-k} = 0 \]
Alright should I reveal the answer?
When n is prime, \[\Large (x+y)^n = x^n+y^n \mod(n)\] for x and y arbitrary non negative integers.
Trick question indeed, you're changing the question!
@mathmate No I'm not, I'm just asking when this is true. And it happens to be true when you're in modular arithmetic! =D
:)
I guess I'll give the medal to someone who can explain why n has to be prime.
It's already explained in the reference, that's why you got a medal! :)
Fine haha. But what's even more interesting is if you follow the link to Sophomore's dream... http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sophomore%27s_dream
Just nitpicking on notation : \[\Large (x+y)^p \ne x^p+y^p \pmod p\] \[\Large (x+y)^p \equiv x^p+y^p \pmod p\]
What's the difference?
"congrunce" is not same "identically equal"
@ganeshie8 agree!
you say two triangles are similar to each other but replacing "similar" with "equal" is not acceptable "strictly speaking"
@Kainui Yes, sophomore is even more beautiful! :) Apart from the two dreams, I learned about the Bernoulli family.
i remember seeing sophomore dream recently http://openstudy.com/study#/updates/54579995e4b0a717ff61b10b @Princer_Jones
Interesting, I wonder what equation satisfies this: \[\Large \int\limits_{f(x)}^1x^{-x}dx = \sum_{n=1}^{1/f(n)}n^{-n}\] If you catch my drift.
don't the limits of integration have to be constant with respect to the variable of integration?
I guess I have written it incorrectly, Interesting, I wonder what equation satisfies this: \[\Large \int\limits_{f(t)}^1x^{-x}dx = \sum_{n=1}^{1/f(t)}n^{-n}\] If you catch my drift.
\[ \int_a^xdx \]Doesn't make sense because you're saying \(a<x<x\)
I would put:\[\Large \int\limits_{1/c}^1x^{-x}dx = \sum_{n=1}^{c}n^{-n}\]
Sure, I think the main problem with this is we might end up with infinity/2 as the halfway point, which is pretty much nonsense currently.
\[-\Large \int\limits_{1}^{1/c}x^{-x}dx = \sum_{n=1}^{c}n^{-n}\]
\[-\Large \sum_{i=0}^{m} {x_i^*}^{-x_i^*} \frac{1/c-1}{m} = \sum_{n=1}^{c}n^{-n}\]
\(m\to \infty\)
I wonder if this is at all related to: \[\LARGE f(x) = e^{|lnx|}\]
I guess I have some bit of weird intuition in me that says we can rotate the graph \[\large y=x^{-x}\] around the point (1,1) and then stretch the points from 0 to 1 out to 1 to infinity and vice versa to have a sort of "odd" function if that makes sense.
I'm sort of just making stuff up as I go, but it is sort of graphically apparent what it looks like if I do an "even" reflection, the graph changes from this to this:\[\Large x^{-x} \rightarrow x^{1/x}\]
What I'm looking for is some kind of heuristic argument that says something similar to the proof that there are just as many numbers between 0 and 1 as there are from 1 to infinity. But it has to expand upon this and say that we can turn sums into integrals in a similar sort of manner by squeezing the sum into an integral in a sense. That's kind of my motivation right now, since it seems like an intuitive sort of thing going on here that I don't quite understand yet but would like to.
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