Question about integrals
Any ideas Zarkon? I used green's theorem, but i don't get the right answer. The right answer is -3pi/2
i get the -3, but i can't convert the elipse into polar coordinates, so how are they getting the pi/2?
@wio
Uh... parametrize the elipse?
so like x = cost and y = 4 sint?
\[ x^2+4y^2=4 \]Divide both sides by 4: \[ \frac14x^2+y^2=1 \]Now consider: \[ \cos ^2 t+\sin^2t=1 \implies \frac 14x^2=\cos^2t, \, y^2=\sin^2t \]
so that leaves me with -3[integral of (dxdy)] and then if i do a parametrization like you said, I'm still lost on the boundaries
i ouwld have x^2 = cos^2 /4, sow ould i just do [2pi, 0] as limits?
Since it is an ellipse, \(0\leq t<2\pi\)
Since you'd want to go the whole way around
but the integral is empty though
what would i get inside it?
Actually, hold that thought
\[\int\limits_{0}^{2\pi} dxdy\]
actually no!
cause if i did parametrize it, i would need a cross product to convert it like that
We are integrating through an ellipse over a vector field
This is a line integral
where is the vector field ocming from?
If you want to use GT: Find your partial derivatives- \[\frac{\partial}{\partial y}(4y-3x)=4\\ \frac{\partial }{\partial x}(x-4y)=1\] By Green's theorem (and converting to polar), \[\Large\int_\gamma\cdots=\int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^{\frac{ab}{\sqrt{(b\cos\theta)^2+(a\sin\theta)^2}}}(4-1)r~dr~d\theta\] where \[\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}=1~~\iff~~r(\theta)=\frac{ab}{\sqrt{(b\cos\theta)^2+(a\sin\theta)^2}}\] is your ellipse.
The integrand is a differential 1 form, which often can be represented as a vector
um, @SithsAndGiggles, it'd actually be 1-4, wouldn't it?
I always mess that up... is it the partial wrt \(x\) minus the partial wrt to \(y\), or the other way around? In either case, use the right one :)
...
but using that polar transformation for elipse is complicated
they wouldn't ask us to use that transformation...
I'm not claiming it's the only way to go about this. It's just a suggestion.
yes, that's true, but there should be an easier way...
Well, if you did use greens theorem, you'll just pull out the integrand, and say "this is the area of our elipse anyway"
professor said these should be 5 min problems...
wait, what is the area of the elipse?
GT works best if it is on a closed interval and moving counterclockwise. In this case it is moving ANTIclockwise (counterclockwise), so it works.
you can't just pull out integrand using green's theorem.
Something like \(\pi ab\).
You can pull out a constant.
yes, that part is true
We had a constant before the conversion to polar
but if you were to calculate the area, and multiply to gether, it wouldn't come out wrong.
mhm, yeyeye, i get waht you're saying though
so bak to my main question, how do i get -3pi/2?
the polar transformation is one way, but how do you do it using the other methods?
Define the vector-valued function, \(\vec{r}(t)=\langle 2\cos t,\sin t\rangle\) (the ellipse). Then \[\int_\gamma \cdots=\int_0^{2\pi}[(4\sin t-6\cos t)(-2\sin t)+(2\cos t-4\sin t)(\cos t)]~dt\] This might be the quickest way.
If you don't do the polar transformation. \[ \iint_D (1-4)~dA = -3\iint_DdA = -3 \pi (1)(2) = -6\pi \]
I wonder why I get that instead...
The standard form would be: \[ \left(\frac{x}{2}\right)^2 + \left(\frac y1\right)^2=1 \]
I just did it and looked up at @wio 's -6pi and that's exactly what I did. I suppose we must all be doing it wrong lol.
Here's an approach using Green's theorem, integrating in both rectangular and polar coordinates. \[\text{Rectangular:}\\\begin{align*} \int_\gamma\cdots&=-3\int_{-2}^2\int_{-\sqrt{1-\frac{x^2}{4}}}^\sqrt{1-\frac{x^2}{4}}dy~dx\\\\ &=-6\int_{-2}^2\int_0^\sqrt{1-\frac{x^2}{4}}dy~dx\\\\ &=-6\int_{-2}^2\sqrt{1-\frac{x^2}{4}}~dx \end{align*}\] A trig sub follows from here. \[\text{Polar:}\\\begin{align*} \int_\gamma\cdots&=-3\int_{0}^{2\pi}\int_{0}^\frac{2}{\sqrt{\cos^2\theta+4\sin^2\theta}}r~dr~d\theta\\\\ &=-\frac{3}{2}\int_{0}^{2\pi}\frac{4}{\cos^2\theta+4\sin^2\theta}~d\theta\\\\ &=-6\int_{0}^{2\pi}\frac{d\theta}{1+3\sin^2\theta} \end{align*}\] which can be computed using the tangent-half-angle substitution, or possibly something much simpler.
I think the problem lies in there somehow being a singularity at the point (0,0) I guess?
All the integrals evaluate to \(-6\pi\). The given answer is probably wrong.
Since there is no division, I don't really see there being any singularity
um, first off, above, @SithsAndGiggles the parametrization is wrong i think?
theequation is x^2 + 4y^2 = 4.
so why would it be (2cost, sint)?
I'm working it out without using Green's Thm since it's really not that difficult to just do the line integral with <2cos t, sin t> as the parameterization.
Yeah that.
@Curry Because, \[(2\cos t)^2+4\sin^2t=4\cos^2t+4\sin^2t=4\]
surely, the professor can't be wrong, i mean he's a universtiy of professor at UCB... and the T.A.s would have pointed it out ot be wrong if it was...
Even professors aren't infallible ;)
no i know, but other students would have pointed it out, but i guess if this is the answer we're all getting, i'll keep this one for now.
The professor is correct, it is the math which is lying to us.
Sometimes the numbers screw with the proletariat for their own well being.
Crazy how nature do that. Not only does directly solving the line integral but using Green's Theorem in rectangular and polar coordinates all give -6pi despite your professor being right.
lol, there are 250 students in the class, and 3 T.A.s, atleast one of them would have came up with a different answer than -3pi/2 is all I'm saying...
if that is answer is wrong...
3 TAs????
?
Although this is totally wrong, I'm tempted to say that they just did it for 1 quadrant and then forgot to multiply by 4. Obviously this is wrong because the line integral is different in each quadrant.
Look, if the ellipse was \[ x^2+4y^2=1 \]Then we would have: \[ \frac{x^2}{1^2}+\frac{y^2}{(1/2)^2}=1 \]And we would get: \[ -3\pi(1)(1/2) = -3\pi/2 \]
wait, back up there when Sith and the rectanglular approach of green's theorme, why is the bottom limit 0, instead of -sqrt(1-x^2/4)?
@wio
It's 0 because that's in polar coordinates and represents an integral from r=0, not y=0.
but it's in rectangular form, not polar though
Oh, when that occurs he's just using a fact that even functions obey this rule: \[\Large \int\limits_{-a}^af(x)dx=2 \int\limits_0^af(x)dx\]
For even functions?
Yes, because even functions are left-right symmetric instead of integrating the whole thing, you can just double the value of the integral on the positive half of the integral. Here the even function is f(x)=1. since f(x)=f(-x) it is even, right? Makes sense I hope.
\[\text{Rectangular:}\\\begin{align*} \int_\gamma\cdots&=-3\int_{-2}^2\int_{-\sqrt{1-\frac{x^2}{4}}}^\sqrt{1-\frac{x^2}{4}}dy~dx\\\\ &=-6\int_{-2}^2\int_0^\sqrt{1-\frac{x^2}{4}}dy~dx\\\\ \end{align*}\] So specifically this is what I'm talking about.
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!