Let a and b be integers, and let m be a positive integer. Then a ≡ b (mod m) if and only if a mod m = b mod m. Prove that:
let \(a mod m = x\), \(b mod m = y\) also x =y , y-x= 0 so , a = pm +x similarly b = qm +y subtract these 2 equations b-a = (p-q)m + y-x let p-q =r b= mr +a giving \(a\equiv b~ mod~ m \)
@ganeshie8 @mathmath333 check whether i did it right :P
not sure whether its complete *if and only if*
that looks good to me for backward direction
\(\impliedby : \) \[a \pmod{m} = b\pmod {m} \implies a\equiv b \pmod{m}\] \(\implies : \) \[a\equiv b \pmod{m} \implies a \pmod{m} = b\pmod {m} \]
b-a = (p-q)m + y-x this should be b-a = (q-p)m + y-x
oh right!
forward dir. : we have a \(\equiv \) b mod m b = mr +a what next ?
^ that is the definition of \(b\equiv a(mod~ m)\)
O.o when b is divided by m, the remainder is a so, a \(\equiv \) b mod m
or did i get that wrong :P
well these are the theorms and its standard proof u will find in number theory books
and that proofs are long i think
i just want to know a ≡ b mod m gives b = mr + a or not ...
\(14\equiv 4 (mod 10)\\~\\ 4=-10\times 1+14\)
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