Based on the given statements, which is a valid argument? @mathstudent55 @surjithayer @iambatman
Any ideas?
for an equilateral triangle all three sides and all three angles are equal.
I believe it is A. , just like surjithayer mentioned above- "for an equilateral triangle all three sides and all three angles are equal", this is correct. The problem is we weren't told if "all three angles" are equal!
@surjithayer and @mathmate
if all the three sides of a triangle are equal,it implies all the three angles are also equal.
The question itself is a little misleading. Strictly speaking, a triangle with all three angles congruent is an equiangular triangle, and a triangle with all three sides congruent is an equilateral triangle. It can be proved that \(all~equiangular~triangles~are~equilateral,~and~vice~versa\). Perhaps for this reason, the two terms are frequently treated as synonymous. In the above question which treats them differently, I would have used the correct terms.
By process of elimination I can eliminate option A and option D.
Hmmm...
Thank you mathmate and surjithayer. @mathmate Yes, it is a bit misleading!
"Equiangular" means all angles are equal. Etymology of "lateral": Origin late Middle English: from Latin lateralis, from latus, later- ‘side.’ So equilateral means all sides are equal. Does that change your reasoning?
I don't understand, I'm saying: Option A- False , because they are equal Option B- I think it's this one. Option C- I think this is false. Option D- False, we are only told about 3 sides- not 4.
Option A- *False, because we can conclude they are equal*
Option A is false. I have misread the statement. You are good so far in eliminating A and D. Can you elaborate why you chose B?
Based on the given information, we are able to prove she drew a closed figure, in this case a triangle, thus, that eliminates option C.
^Way better explanation!
Yes, the logic is much better! Direct and positive!
\(\color{blue}{\Large\checkmark}{Way~to~go!}\)
Thank you! @mathmate To conclude do you agree it is option B as well?
Yes, because everything it states corresponds to what is given, so there is no contradiction.
Thank you love ! :)
You're welcome! :)
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