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Limits question
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\[\Large \lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=1\] Does this imply \[\Large \lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{e^{f(x)}}{e^{g(x)}}=1\]
The answer is no, but I don't know how to show this.
draw a picture to clear it up and help you out :p
counter example...let f(x)=x and g(x)=x+1
\[\frac{x}{x+1}\to1\] \[\frac{e^x}{e^{x+1}}=e^{-1}\neq 1\]
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Awesome, thanks.
for a limit not involving infinity, e.g. \[ \Large \lim_{x \to c} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=1 \] we can say \[ \lim_{x \to c} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=\frac{ \lim f(x)}{\lim g(x)} \] but if the limit of f(x) and g(x) is infinity we get \( \frac{\infty}{\infty} \) which is not defined
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