o
well P is the amount to be repaid after the $12900 is paid and it doesn't matter the amount you need to calculate the value of \[(1 + \frac{r}{100})^n\] for each dealership... the smaller value is the better deal... less to pay on the balance owning
P = total - moneyDown r = rate n(or t) = cycles passed (number of times interest is added) plug these values into the equation and find the value that multiplies P less. ex: I owe $300 with 10% interest compounded monthly for 2 years\[A = 300(1+\frac{ 10 }{100 })^{24}\]
well you don't owe 12900, you owe x-12900, but assuming the cost of both trucks is the same and you're only calculating interest, you can leave P as just P. but yes the rest of the equation is right, you get \[A = P(1+\frac{ 7 }{ 100 })^{4}\] assuming it's compounded yearly. what you want to do is choose the equation that multiplies P the least. Does that make sense?
compare it to the other option, 5% for 6 years
yes, now which is less, 1.07^4 or 1.05^6?
1.07^4 = 1.31 1.05^6 = 1.34
but essentially those values are going to be multiplied by P. To pay less you want to multiply P by a smaller number
no, when approaching the problem you were looking for the coefficient of P. That value is everything after P. You simplified the coefficients to 1.07^4 and 1.05^6. when given 3x and 5x, you know that 3x is smaller simply because the coefficient is smaller. (assuming x is positive) same goes for this problem
sorry not everything after, only in this case, a coefficient is what is multiplied by a variable
21
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!