Ask your own question, for FREE!
Mathematics 16 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

Math Analysis (Calculus)- !Please let me write it out! Given:

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Given: \[f(x)=(\frac{ 1 }{ x }-\frac{ 1 }{ x^2 })\] a. Explain why the following is incorrect:\[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^+}f(x)=\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^+}(\frac{ 1 }{ x }-\frac{ 1 }{ x^2 })=\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^+}(\frac{ 1 }{ x })-\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^+}(\frac{ 1 }{ x^2 })=(+\infty)-(+\infty)=0\] NOTE: IT IS INSUFFICENT TO SAY THAT INFINITY-INFINITY MAY NOT EQUAL TO ZERO!!!

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@SolomonZelman

OpenStudy (dan815):

you are dealing with different orders of infinity

OpenStudy (anonymous):

My teacher said that we need to be very brief with that explanation.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

And sorry i don't know what you mean by different orders

OpenStudy (dan815):

|dw:1426115071850:dw|

Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!
Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!