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Math Analysis (Calculus)- !Please let me write it out! Given:
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Given: \[f(x)=(\frac{ 1 }{ x }-\frac{ 1 }{ x^2 })\] a. Explain why the following is incorrect:\[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^+}f(x)=\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^+}(\frac{ 1 }{ x }-\frac{ 1 }{ x^2 })=\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^+}(\frac{ 1 }{ x })-\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^+}(\frac{ 1 }{ x^2 })=(+\infty)-(+\infty)=0\] NOTE: IT IS INSUFFICENT TO SAY THAT INFINITY-INFINITY MAY NOT EQUAL TO ZERO!!!
@SolomonZelman
you are dealing with different orders of infinity
My teacher said that we need to be very brief with that explanation.
And sorry i don't know what you mean by different orders
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