show that \(m^2+n+2\) and \(n^2 +4m\) are not perfect squares simultaneously
limited to integers? whole numbers?
sry yes limited to whole numbers
*positive integers
oooh! hey I can actually do this one!
i bet you can :)
Number theory proofs are not my strong suit, so I get excited when I can as it is not a usual occurrence.
So, I would approach this by first defining what it would mean if each respectively was a perfect square
here is a hint given book if \(k^2\) is a perfect square (it is!) then the next perfect square occurs after \(2k+1\) integers that means for \(m^2+n+2\) to be a perfect square, we must have \(n+2 \ge 2m+1\)
I think you can pull a wlog m>n
true
as for the hint, do you see where they got that from?
not you dan haha
not quite.. im still unsure of this prblem actually
ok so let's look at it from the beginning. Do you agree that if \(m^2+n+2=k^2 \) is a perfect square then there exists some k>2 for it?
we can actually make that sharper I think
a^2 - b^2 = (a+b)(a-b) a^2 = m^2+n+2 -b^2 = -(n^2+4m) m^2 +n +2 -n^2 -4m (m^2-4m) - (n^2 -n) +2 (m^2-4m+4) - (n^2 -n+1/4) +2-4+1/4 (m-2)^2 - (n-1/2)^2 -7/4 = (m-2+n-1/2)(m-2-n+1/2) -7/4 not sure where im going with this thought .... just thinking tho
ugh, but we need to prove the perfect squares layout first in a lemma
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