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Find the limit as n approaches infinity of (1+ 2/n) ^ (1/n)
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I know it is 1 but I am not sure how to show it...?
make a guess i bet you are right
Does it equal one just because any number to the power of 0 to 1?
is not to*
Is there any way I can show my work?
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oh no, it is definitely not one
Howw?
ok you win it is one i read it wrong q
Nah it's good, how can I show this work though?
take the log to get the variable out of the exponent and start with \[\frac{1}{n}\ln(1+\frac{2}{n})\]
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Lhospitals?
take the limit of that one, you will get \(0\) so your answer is \(e^0=1\)
yeah you can do it using l'hopital
how did you get the e^0 part?
oh I got it. thanks
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because the first step was taking the log
yw
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