Find the limit of these partial sums.
I think this is an arithmetic sequence.
It isn't arithmetic or geometric, but it doesn't converge because it's less that \(1/n^2\).
It's more of a harmonic sequence
Why does it converge when it is less than 1/n^2? Could you explain further on harmonic sequence please? :)
My guess is that it is telescoping.
How do you guess that it is telescoping?
So you have something like \[ \frac{2}{n(n+2)} = \frac{a}{n} + \frac{b}{n+2} \]
ok..
\[ \frac{a}{n}+\frac{b}{n+2} = \frac{a(n+2) + b(n)}{n(n+2)} = \frac{2a + (a+b)n}{n(n+2)} \]
So we have \[ 2=\color{blue}{2}+\color{red}{0}n= \color{blue}{2a} + \color{red}{(a+b)}n \]This gives us the equations: \[ 2a=2\\ (a+b) = 0 \]Solving this system gives: \[ a = 1\\ b=-a=-1 \]
Which would imply that: \[ \frac{2}{n(n+2)} = \frac{1}{n} - \frac{1}{n+2} \]
okkk.
Okay, for you earlier question. We know that \(1/n^2\) converges in general, and we know that any sequence bounded by a converging sequences will converge. It's a bit like squeeze theorem.
OHOHH I see!
Okay, how do we continue this problem?
Well, the thing about a telescoping sequence is that it cancels itself out nicely. Just take a look:\[ \sum_{n=4}^{\infty}\left(\frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{n+2}\right)= \sum_{n=4}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n}-\sum_{n=4}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n+2} \]Now we pull out the first two terms for the \(1/n\) series: \[ \frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{5}+\sum_{n=6}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n}-\sum_{n=4}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n+2} \]Next we reparametrize it. We say \(n' = n+2\). So \(n=6\implies n'=4\): \[ \frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{5}+\sum_{n'=4}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n'+2}-\sum_{n=4}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n+2} \]Now those two sequences are equivalent. The \(n\) and \(n'\) are dummy variables. This means we have: \[ \sum_{n=4}^{\infty}\frac{2}{n(n+2)} = \frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{5} =\frac{9}{20} \]
How would you define a telescoping sequence? And thank you so much
As for why I thought it would be telescoping... Well there are two reasons, first is that there is no obvious sum for this series. Second is that it looked like a partial fractions question.
I guess I would say sequence \(a_n\) is telescoping if it can be written in the form: \[ a_n = b_n - b_{n+k} \]Once you get to the \(k\)th term, you see that it will cancel itself out.
\[ (b_n\cancel{-b_{n+k}})+ (b_{n+1}-b_{n+k+1})+ \ldots+ (b_{n+k}-b_{n+k2})\\ (b_n-b_{n+k})+ (b_{n+1}-b_{n+k+1})+ \ldots+ (\cancel{b_{n+k}}-b_{n+k2}) \]The \(-b_{n+k}\) and \(b_{n+k}\) cancel, this continues forever if we have an infinite series. In that case the only terms we have to worry about are: \[ b_{n} + b_{n+1}+\ldots + b_{n+k-1} \]Since these terms do not get canceled.
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