an orthorhombic box with all surfaces of this box are maintained at zero potential except the right surface at y=b. See picture I attached below. Find V=(x,y,z)! I will give a medal and fan :)
|dw:1429187192599:dw|
Can help me @IGreen @dan815 @sleepyjess @Michele_Lalno @JFrase @Joel_the_boss @Inkyvoyd @rational ?
@Michele_Laino @JFraser
This is a genuinely three-dimensional problem\[\frac{ \partial^2 V }{ \partial x^2 }+\frac{ \partial^2 V }{ \partial y^2 }+\frac{ \partial^2 V }{ \partial z^2 }=0\]
subject to the boundary condition
(i) V=0 when x =0 (ii) V=0 when x=a (iii) V=0 when z=0 (iv) V=0 when z=k (v) V=0 when y=0 (vi) V=V(x,z) when y=b
We look for solutions that are products \[V(x,y,z) = X(x)Y(y)Z(z)\]
Putting this into the first equation, and dividing by V, we find \[\frac{ 1 }{ X } \frac{ \partial^2 X }{ dx^2 }+\frac{ 1 }{ Y } \frac{ \partial^2 Y }{ dy^2 }+\frac{ 1 }{ Z} \frac{ \partial^2 Z }{ dz^2 }=0\]
it follows that \[\frac{ 1 }{ X } \frac{ \partial^2 X }{ dx^2 } =C_1\] \[\frac{ 1 }{ Y } \frac{ \partial^2 Y }{ dy^2 } =C_2\] \[\frac{ 1 }{ Z } \frac{ \partial^2 Z }{ dz^2 } =C_3\]
with \[C_1+C_2+C_3 =0\]
It suggests that \(C_1\) must be positive, \(C_2\) and \(C_3\) negative. Setting \(C_2 = -k^2\) and \(C_3 = -l^2\), we have \(C_1 = k^2+l^2\), and hence \[\frac{ d^2X }{ dx^2 }=(k^2+l^2)X\] \[\frac{ d^2Y }{ dy^2 }=(-k^2)Y\] \[\frac{ d^2Z }{ dz^2 }=(-l^2)Z\]
Of course, separation of variable has turned a partial differential equation into ordinary differential equations. The solutions are \[X(x)=A \sin(\sqrt{k^2+l^2}x)+B \cos(\sqrt{k^2+l^2}x)\] \[Y(y)=C \sin(ky)+D \cos(ky)\] \[Z(z)=E \sin(lz)+F \cos(lz)\]
Boundary condition (i) implies B=0, (iii) gives F=0, and (v) gives D=0, whereas (ii) and (iv) require that \[\sqrt{K^2+l^2}=\frac{ n \pi }{ a }\] \[l = \frac{ m \pi }{ k }\] Thus, \[K = \pi \sqrt{\frac{ n^2 }{ a^2 }-\frac{ m^2 }{ k^2 }}\] where n and m are positive integers
@UnkleRhaukus
i am stuck :)
Help me @perl @Hero @UnkleRhaukus @zepdrix @TheSmartOne @Nnesha @wio
@Nurali
can you help me @gorv ?
@Joel_the_boss
\(\frac{1}{Z}\frac{\partial^2 Z}{\partial z^2}\) harus menghasilkan fungsi Z(z) yg \(V(x,y,0)=X(x)Y(y)Z(0)=0\) dan \(V(x,y,k)=X(x)Y(y)Z(k)=U\) Ambil aja \(\frac{1}{Z}\frac{\partial^2 Z}{\partial z^2}=\alpha^2, \frac{1}{Y}\frac{\partial^2 Y}{\partial y^2}=\beta^2\), dan \(\frac{1}{X}\frac{\partial^2 X}{\partial x^2}=-\gamma^2\) yg kemudian akan didapatkan \(X=X_0 \cos{\gamma x}\), \(Y=Y_0 \cos{\beta y}\), dan \(Z=Z_0 \sinh{\alpha z}\) dengan \(\alpha=\sqrt{\beta^2+\gamma^2}\). Dgn fungsi2 ini, \(X(0)\), \(Y(0)\), \(X(a)\), dan \(Y(b)\) gak nol, karena memang ga boleh nol agar saat \(Z(0)=0\) dan \(Z(k)\) gak nol.
@gorv
helllloooo please help @gerryliyana everybody!
@gerryliyana can you please explain why the Laplacian is appropriate in this case? It will take you case no further forward but i think it would be good to know.
I dont know @IrishBoy123
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