guys the inverse laplace transform of e^-(sc+k)x is what???
What's the question? To explain it's meaning?
\[\mathcal L^{-1}\big\{e^{-(sc+k)x}\big\} \]
use the shift theorem(s)
yes
then how we use shift thm?
can u apply the shift thm on this question?
Have you tried it already?
this is right or wrong? if right then plz find the inverse laplace of the last term.
some one check this qstn plz.
just a thought but as you are inverse transforming with respect to \(s\), should you not: \( e^{-(sc+k)x} = e^{-(cx)s}.e^{-kx} \) which makes it look like this Heaviside shift: \( e^{-kx} . H(t - cx) . sin (t - cx) \) rest looks OK to me.
thank u.
i am notgetting u.what r u saying??
this is not a convolution but a Heaviside shift \(e^{-kx}\) is effectively a constant in the inverse transformation, so you are looking at \((e^{-kx}\mathcal{L^{-1}}\{ e^{-(cx)s} \} \), which represents a Heaviside shift of cx. the solution i posted meets the IV's, if you plug them in. you can also plug the solution back into the original DE and you will see that it works.
sin(t-cx) this term correct r u sure?
test it. i couldn't get Wolfram to solve the PDE (maybe you need paid membership for that) but it seems to allow you to work backwards, eg http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=d2%2Fdx%5E2+%5B+e%5E%28-kx%29+*+sin+%28t+-+cx%29%5D so, if i was unconvinced, i'd do this for each term in the original equation and add them up. you should also as a matter of course re-test the IV's as the solution clearly needs to pass that test too. this solution should. then, if and when that is all done and dusted, i'd then wonder why i was doubting the solution.
how we can take inverse laplace of the last statement?
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